Finding Integral Value: \int_{1}^{e^\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (lnx) dx

  • Thread starter Doc G
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You forgot the integral term in the second integration by parts. It should be:2I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u duwhich is equivalent to:2I = -\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u duand then you get the correct answer by dividing by 2.In summary, when finding the value of the integral \int_{1}^{e^\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (lnx) dx, substitution and integration by parts can be used to simplify the integral to -\int
  • #1
Doc G
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Hi,

Homework Statement


find value of
[tex]
\int_{1}^{e^\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (lnx) dx
[/tex]

Homework Equations



The Attempt at a Solution



I first used subsitution u = lnx, that gave me:

[tex]
\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]
then letting
[tex]
I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]
integrating by parts twice, gave me:
[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u +\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} u e^{u}\cos u du
[/tex]
[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u + \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]

therefore

[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u + I
[/tex]
which of course cancels to zero which is not very useful

Any ideas on finding the value of this integral, or have i made an error in my working?

Many Thanks
 
Last edited:
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  • #2
I think you need to re-check the 'by-parts'.
 
Last edited:
  • #3
Yep. In particular, in the second "by parts", think where that sine inside the integral comes from :)
 
  • #4
Taking the result of the first integration by parts:

[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u +\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} u e^{u}\cos u du
[/tex]

then working with the integral part:
[tex]
+\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} u e^{u}\cos u du
[/tex]
let u= cos u
therefore
[tex]
\frac{du}{dx}= - sinu
[/tex]
let
[tex]
\frac{dv}{dx}= u e^{u}
[/tex]
therefore
[tex]
v = e^{u}
[/tex]

then using identity that:

[tex]
\int u \frac{dv}{dx} \equiv uv - \int v \frac{du}{dx}
[/tex]

I got
[tex]
e^{u} \cos u + \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]

Note- i chose u=cos u and dv/dx =ue^u [rather than u=ue^u]since i thought otherwise I would never be able to achieve an equivalent expression without an integral involved as I would get greater and greater powers of u in front of e^u as I kept going.

Sorry if I'm not seeing something obvious, but i can't find the error there

thanks for the replies
 
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  • #5
Doc G said:
Note- i chose u=cos u and dv/dx =ue^u [rather than u=ue^u]since i thought otherwise, I thought I would never be able to achieve an equivalent expression without an integral involved as I would get great and great powers of u in front of e^u as I kept going.

How did you get a 'u' within the integral at the result of the first integration by parts? (And it's now the derivative with respect to u, not x)

[I'm using t instead of u for the sake of clarity]

The first integral, after substitution [tex]= \int_{0}^{\pi/2}{e^t\sin{t}}dt[/tex]

Let u = cos(t) and dv/dt = e^t. Therefore, du/dt = -sin(t) and v = e^t.
 
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  • #6
Thanks, I think I've got it now; but just to check here my full working:

let
[tex]
I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{t}\sin t dt
[/tex]

u = sin t
dv/dt= e^t

therefore
du/dt = cos t
v = e^t

so:
[tex]
I = e^{t} sin t - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{t} cos t dt
[/tex]

and integrating by parts again:
u = cos t
dv/dt = e^t

so
du/dt = -sin t
v = e^t

[tex]
I = e^{t} sin t - e^{t} cos t - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{t} sin t dt
[/tex]

[tex]
I = e^{t} sin t - e^{t} cos t - I
[/tex]

[tex]
2I = [e^{t} ( sin t - cos t )]_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}}
[/tex]
[tex]
I = \frac{1}{2} [(e^{\frac{\pi}{2}}( 1 - 0 )) - ( -1)]
[/tex]

and finally, giving
[tex]
I = \frac{1}{2} [e^{\frac{\pi}{2}} + 1 ]
[/tex]

Hopefully its right this time?

Thanks again
 
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  • #7
Perfect! ...
 
  • #8
Great! Thank you very much for the advice
 
  • #9
You're welcome. :)
 
  • #10
Hmm, I don't quite follow what you're doing in your subsequent posts (it looks correct though), but your first try was already correct if it weren't for one minus sign:

Doc G said:
[tex]
\int_{1}^{e^\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (lnx) dx
[/tex]

I first used subsitution u = lnx, that gave me:

[tex]
\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]
then letting
[tex]
I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]
integrating by parts twice, gave me:
[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u +\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} u e^{u}\cos u du
[/tex]
[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u - \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} e^{u}\sin u du
[/tex]
Note the minus sign: cos' = -sin

therefore

[tex]
I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u - I
[/tex]
so
[tex]2I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u[/tex]
and the answer follows.
 
  • #11
CompuChip said:
Hmm, I don't quite follow what you're doing in your subsequent posts (it looks correct though), but your first try was already correct if it weren't for one minus sign:


so
[tex]2I = - e^{u} \cos u + e^{u} \cos u[/tex]
and the answer follows.
And you end up with 0, which is incorrect.
 

FAQ: Finding Integral Value: \int_{1}^{e^\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (lnx) dx

What is the significance of finding the integral value of this function?

The integral value of a function represents the area under the curve of that function between two given points. In this case, it represents the area under the curve of \sin (lnx) between x = 1 and x = eπ/2. This can provide valuable information about the behavior of the function and can be used in various mathematical applications.

How do you solve this integral?

To solve this integral, we can use the substitution method. We can let u = lnx, which means du = dx/x. Substituting these values into the integral, we get \int_{1}^{e^\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (lnx) dx = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sin (u) du. This is a simple integral that can be solved using basic integration rules.

What is the final result of this integral?

The final result of this integral is -cos(u) \bigg|_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = -cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) - (-cos(0)) = 0 + 1 = 1. This means that the integral value of \sin (lnx) between x = 1 and x = eπ/2 is 1.

What is the graphical interpretation of this integral?

The graphical interpretation of this integral is the shaded area under the curve of \sin (lnx) between the x-axis and the vertical lines x = 1 and x = eπ/2. This area represents the integral value of the function and can provide insights into the behavior of the function.

Can this integral be solved using other methods?

Yes, this integral can also be solved using integration by parts. However, the substitution method is simpler and more straightforward in this case. Other methods such as numerical integration can also be used to find an approximate value of the integral.

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