- #1
steven187
- 176
- 0
hello all
well this is the first time Iv used latex it really took me along time to write, is it suppose to take that long or is there a better way of doing it?
anyway this is a small part of a bigger problem everytime i tried i always show that the limite does not exist, but when i chuck it into mathematica the limite does exist, can anybody help, its really awkward check it out
thanxs
[tex]\int_0^1\frac{\Pi\coth\Pi\times\x}{2}-\frac{1}{2\times\x}dx[/tex]
[tex] \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} (\int_\epsilon^1\frac{\Pi\coth\Pi\times\x}{2}-\frac{1}{2\times\x}dx)[/tex]
then eventually i get this
[tex] \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} (\frac{\log[\epsilon]}{2}+\frac{\log[\sinh\Pi]}{2}-\frac{\log[\sinh\Pi\epsilon]}{2})[/tex]
but no matter how much i tried i cannot get it to equal
[tex]\frac{\log[\frac{\sinh\Pi}{\Pi}]}{2}[/tex]
well this is the first time Iv used latex it really took me along time to write, is it suppose to take that long or is there a better way of doing it?
anyway this is a small part of a bigger problem everytime i tried i always show that the limite does not exist, but when i chuck it into mathematica the limite does exist, can anybody help, its really awkward check it out
thanxs
[tex]\int_0^1\frac{\Pi\coth\Pi\times\x}{2}-\frac{1}{2\times\x}dx[/tex]
[tex] \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} (\int_\epsilon^1\frac{\Pi\coth\Pi\times\x}{2}-\frac{1}{2\times\x}dx)[/tex]
then eventually i get this
[tex] \lim_{\epsilon \rightarrow 0} (\frac{\log[\epsilon]}{2}+\frac{\log[\sinh\Pi]}{2}-\frac{\log[\sinh\Pi\epsilon]}{2})[/tex]
but no matter how much i tried i cannot get it to equal
[tex]\frac{\log[\frac{\sinh\Pi}{\Pi}]}{2}[/tex]