Finding the State and Expectation Value for a Free Particle at Time t

In summary, the conversation discusses the eigenstates of the momentum operator with eigenvalue k, denoted by |k>, and the state of the system at t = 0, given by the vector |{ψ}>=\int \frac {dk}{2π} g(k)|{k}>. The task is to find the state of the system at time t, |ψ(t)>, and compute the expectation value of the momentum operator, \hat{P}. The solution involves introducing the exponential of the Hamiltonian operator, H, to the state |ψ>, and using the operator p instead of the number \hat P. The final result for the expectation value is \frac{1}{4\pi
  • #1
spacetimedude
88
1

Homework Statement


The eigenstates of the momentum operator with eigenvalue k are denoted by |k>, and the state of the system at t = 0 is given by the vector
[tex]|{ψ}>=\int \frac {dk}{2π} g(k)|{k}>[/tex]
Find the state of the system at t, |ψ(t)>.

Compute the expectation value of [itex]\hat{P}[/itex].

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


From what I learned from the lecture, I just have to introduce (multiply) [itex] \exp[\frac{-i}{\hbar}\hat{H}t][/itex] where in this free particle case, [itex]\hat{H}=\frac{\hat{P}^2}{2m}[/itex], to |ψ>.

So [tex]|{ψ(t)}>=\exp[\frac{-i}{\hbar}\frac{\hat{P}^2}{2m}t]\int \frac {dk}{2π} g(k)|{k}>[/tex]

When I compute for the expectation value using [itex]<ψ(t)|\hat{P}|ψ(t)>[/itex], I get [itex]\frac{1}{4\pi^2}\int |k|^2 \hat{P} dx[/itex].

The exponentials cancel due to multiplying of its complex conjugate.
I was confused on how to get rid of the two integrals with dk. I assumed (without reason so probably wrong) they become 1 because they are the product of complex conjugate and the total probability is 1.

Any help will be appreciated!

PS. How do I type ket in latex?
 
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  • #2
Hi,

You want to be a bit more accurate.

For time development I think you want ##H## and not ##\hat H##. ##H## is an operator and yes, the ##|k>## are simultaneous eigenfunctions of H and p . See the link for the normalization: you don't have two integrals with ##k## but one with ##k## and one with ##k'##.

Equally, for ##\hat P## you want the operator ##\ p\ ## and not the number ##\hat P## (that would be kind of circular ...)

Ket in ##LaTeX## is just what you did. Or use \left \langle a\middle | b\right \rangle : ##\ \ \left \langle a\middle | b\right \rangle ##
 
  • #3
BvU said:
Hi,

You want to be a bit more accurate.

For time development I think you want ##H## and not ##\hat H##. ##H## is an operator and yes, the ##|k>## are simultaneous eigenfunctions of H and p . See the link for the normalization: you don't have two integrals with ##k## but one with ##k## and one with ##k'##.

Equally, for ##\hat P## you want the operator ##\ p\ ## and not the number ##\hat P## (that would be kind of circular ...)

Ket in ##LaTeX## is just what you did. Or use \left \langle a\middle | b\right \rangle : ##\ \ \left \langle a\middle | b\right \rangle ##

Hmm, I'm a bit confused. From my understanding, ##\hat{H}=\hat{T}+\hat{U}## where ##\hat{T}## is the kinetic operator and ##\hat{U}## the potential operator. And for free particle, U=0. Then I wrote the kinetic energy operator in terms of the momentum operator.
Isn't ##\hat P## the operator ##-i \hbar \frac {d}{dx}## and not a number? And do you mean that when I take the complex conjugate of one of the ##Ψ(t)##, I should take the integral of k' and the other one in k, resulting in ##\frac{1}{4\pi^2}\int dk' g(k') \int dk g(k)## ? I don't know why I need to consider ##\hat{p}^2## because it gets canceled out when multiplying the complex conjugate of the exponential.
 
  • #4
Sorry, my bad -- I wrongly interpreted your notation . So ##\hat P|k> = k |k>## . That way you can describe the time development of ##|k>##.
For the time development, the exponent therefore stays under the integral: each ##|k>## has its own time development.

spacetimedude said:
And do you mean that when I take the complex conjugate of one of the Ψ(t)Ψ(t)Ψ(t), I should take the integral of k' and the other one in k, resulting in
yes. see the link: the integration yields something with a delta function.
 
  • #5
BvU said:
Sorry, my bad -- I wrongly interpreted your notation . So ##\hat P|k> = k |k>## . That way you can describe the time development of ##|k>##.
For the time development, the exponent therefore stays under the integral: each ##|k>## has its own time development.

yes. see the link: the integration yields something with a delta function.

Not quite sure how to follow the steps on the link. The integral I have for the expectation is ##\frac {1}{(2\pi)^2}\int dx \int dk \int g(k')g(k)k'k(dk')##. Have I done something wrong?
 
  • #6
Where are the ##\ \ \left \langle k'\middle | k \right \rangle \ \ ##? ##\quad## And the operator only works to the right, doesn't it ?
 
  • #7
BvU said:
Where are the ##\\\ \left \langle k'\middle | k \right \rangle \ \ ##? ##\quad## And the operator only works to the right, doesn't it ?
Hmm, is it supposed to be ##<k'| \frac{1}{2\pi} \int dk' g(k') \exp{\frac{i\hat P ^2 t}{2m\hbar}} \int \hat P \frac{1}{2\pi}dk g(k) \exp{\frac{-i\hat P^2t}{2m\hbar}}|k>## then the exponentials cancel so ##<k'| (\frac{1}{2\pi})^2 \int dk' g(k') \ \int \hat P dk g(k)|k>##? Do I then compute for the expected value using the method of integrating the products of the complex conjugate of <k'|..., ##\hat P## and ...|k>?

Becomes ##\frac{1}{4\pi^2}\int dx k'^* [\int \int dk'dk \hat P g(k')g(k)k]##
 
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  • #8
I also wonder how you can end up with a triple integral
Did you find the normalization eqn for the momentum eigenstates in the link ?
 
  • #9
Note that for ##<p>## (expectation value for ##\hat p## ), you want to end up somewhere at ##\ \int k\;|g(k)| ^2\;dk\ ## (according to my Merzbacher, QM, ##\ |g(k)| ^2 ## is the probability density in momentum space)
 

FAQ: Finding the State and Expectation Value for a Free Particle at Time t

1. What is a free particle in physics?

A free particle in physics refers to a particle that is not subject to any external forces or interactions. This means that the particle is not affected by any forces from other particles or objects, and is only subject to its own intrinsic properties, such as mass and velocity.

2. How does a free particle evolve over time?

A free particle evolves over time according to the laws of quantum mechanics, specifically the Schrödinger equation. This equation describes the time evolution of a quantum system, including a free particle, and can be used to predict the probability of the particle's position and momentum at any given time.

3. What is the significance of free particle time evolution in quantum mechanics?

The study of free particle time evolution is important in quantum mechanics because it allows us to understand the behavior and properties of quantum particles, which can have different characteristics than classical particles. It also provides a foundation for understanding more complex quantum systems and phenomena.

4. How does the concept of wave-particle duality relate to free particle time evolution?

Wave-particle duality is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics that describes the dual nature of particles as both waves and particles. This duality is reflected in the time evolution of free particles, as described by the Schrödinger equation, which uses wave functions to represent the probability of the particle's position and momentum.

5. Can free particle time evolution be experimentally observed?

Yes, free particle time evolution can be experimentally observed using techniques such as quantum tunneling or particle scattering experiments. These experiments can provide evidence for the behavior and properties predicted by the Schrödinger equation and the concept of wave-particle duality.

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