MHB Finite Integral Domains .... Adkins & Weintraub, Proposition 1.5 ....

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The discussion centers on understanding Proposition 1.5 from "Algebra: An Approach via Module Theory" by Adkins and Weintraub, specifically how it concludes that if \( R \) is an integral domain and \( a \neq 0 \), then the equation \( ax = 1 \) is solvable for every \( a \neq 0 \), making \( R \) a field. The explanation provided clarifies that since \( R \) has \( n \) elements and \( ax_1, \ldots, ax_n \) are distinct, one of these must equal 1 due to the finite nature of \( R \). This implies that there exists an \( x_i \) such that \( ax_i = 1 \), establishing \( x_i \) as the multiplicative inverse of \( a \). Consequently, the existence of inverses for all non-zero elements confirms that \( R \) is indeed a field. The discussion effectively elucidates the proof's conclusion regarding the properties of finite integral domains.
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I am reading "Algebra: An Approach via Module Theory" by William A. Adkins and Steven H. Weintraub ...

I am currently focused on Chapter 2: Rings ...

I need help with an aspect of the proof of Proposition 1.5 ... ...

Proposition 1.5 and its proof read as follows:https://www.physicsforums.com/attachments/7924
At the end of the above proof from Adkins and Weintraub we read the following:

" ... ... and hence $$\phi_a (R) = R$$. In particular, the equation $$ax = 1$$ is solvable for every $$a \neq 0$$ and $$R$$ is a field. ... ... "
Can someone please explain to me how the conclusion that "the equation $$ax = 1$$ is solvable for every $$a \neq 0$$ and $$R$$ is a field" follows from the arguments preceding it ...

Basically I do not understand how the arguments before this statement lead to the conclusion ...Help will be much appreciated ...

Peter
 
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Hi Peter,

Assume that $R$ contains $n$ elements. If $R$ is an integral domain and $a\ne0$, the $n$ elements $ax_1,\ldots,ax_n$ are all distinct.

As $|R|=n$, these elements are just the elements of $R$ in a different order; in particular, one of these elements is equal to $1$.

Now, $ax_i=1$ means that $x_i$ is a multiplicative inverse of $a$; as such an inverse exists for each $a\ne0$, $R$ is a field.
 
castor28 said:
Hi Peter,

Assume that $R$ contains $n$ elements. If $R$ is an integral domain and $a\ne0$, the $n$ elements $ax_1,\ldots,ax_n$ are all distinct.

As $|R|=n$, these elements are just the elements of $R$ in a different order; in particular, one of these elements is equal to $1$.

Now, $ax_i=1$ means that $x_i$ is a multiplicative inverse of $a$; as such an inverse exists for each $a\ne0$, $R$ is a field.
Thanks castor28 ...

Most helpful ...

Peter
 
I am studying the mathematical formalism behind non-commutative geometry approach to quantum gravity. I was reading about Hopf algebras and their Drinfeld twist with a specific example of the Moyal-Weyl twist defined as F=exp(-iλ/2θ^(μν)∂_μ⊗∂_ν) where λ is a constant parametar and θ antisymmetric constant tensor. {∂_μ} is the basis of the tangent vector space over the underlying spacetime Now, from my understanding the enveloping algebra which appears in the definition of the Hopf algebra...

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