- #1
Zacarias Nason
- 68
- 4
I just noticed in reading Griffiths that he places the base of the infinite square well at a zero potential while he places the base of the finite square well at a negative potential -V_0, where V_0 is a positive, real number; is there any reason for this? I just started learning about them/am not too familiar with them so I may be missing the importance, but why aren't they both just placed at zero?