- #1
Baba Greb
- 1
- 1
Hey all,
I started building my own flywheel inverted pendulum (i'm using a standard PID controller for the balancing).
I came across many articles regarding the differential equation of the pendulum.
Most article develop the motion equation using the Euler–Lagrange, few chose the Newtonian way.
What I can't figure out is the definition of the torque that all Euler–Lagrange articles made:
image 1
https://www.dropbox.com/s/2ijg9tu2aj3t12w/1.PNG?dl=0
image 2
https://www.dropbox.com/s/n09hxwwf51dbj4f/2.PNG?dl=0
Why is the torque for the wheel different from the rod?
why isn't the torque a single value given by the motor mounted on the wheel?
I would expect it to be the same torque only in the reversed direction like in a Newtonian development:
image 3
https://www.dropbox.com/s/eog1da7j4d8tecy/3.PNG?dl=0
Please help :)
I started building my own flywheel inverted pendulum (i'm using a standard PID controller for the balancing).
I came across many articles regarding the differential equation of the pendulum.
Most article develop the motion equation using the Euler–Lagrange, few chose the Newtonian way.
What I can't figure out is the definition of the torque that all Euler–Lagrange articles made:
image 1
https://www.dropbox.com/s/2ijg9tu2aj3t12w/1.PNG?dl=0
image 2
https://www.dropbox.com/s/n09hxwwf51dbj4f/2.PNG?dl=0
Why is the torque for the wheel different from the rod?
why isn't the torque a single value given by the motor mounted on the wheel?
I would expect it to be the same torque only in the reversed direction like in a Newtonian development:
image 3
https://www.dropbox.com/s/eog1da7j4d8tecy/3.PNG?dl=0
Please help :)