- #1
Arjan82
- 565
- 584
- TL;DR Summary
- For FEM analysis use is made of elements and their natural coordinates. For integration my book provides a neat formula, but unfortunately without source.
In a textbook I own a formula is given for the integration of natural coordinates over an element. In this case it is a 1 dimensional element (i.e. a line segment) with coordinates ##x_i## and ##x_j##. The coordinate ##x## over the element is written as:
$$
x = L_1(x) x_i + L_2(x) x_j
$$
with
$$
L_1(x) = \frac{x_j - x}{L}\text{, }
L_2(x) = \frac{x - x_i}{L}
$$
with ## L= x_j - x_i##
It is stated, unfortunately without source, that:
$$
\int_L L_1^\alpha(x) L_2^\beta(x) dx = \frac{\alpha!\beta!}{(\alpha + \beta +1)!}L
$$
It then continues to show an example where ##x_i = 2## and ##x_j = 6## so that ##L_1(x) = (6-x)/4## and ##L_2(x) = (x-2)/4## and then computes the integral:
$$
\int_2^6 L_1^2(x) L_2(x) dx = 0.333...
$$
Using the long-hand method and the formula stated above. Which obviously give the same result. But where does this formula come from? How is it derived? I want to know the limitations of this formula (which I assume there are).
$$
x = L_1(x) x_i + L_2(x) x_j
$$
with
$$
L_1(x) = \frac{x_j - x}{L}\text{, }
L_2(x) = \frac{x - x_i}{L}
$$
with ## L= x_j - x_i##
It is stated, unfortunately without source, that:
$$
\int_L L_1^\alpha(x) L_2^\beta(x) dx = \frac{\alpha!\beta!}{(\alpha + \beta +1)!}L
$$
It then continues to show an example where ##x_i = 2## and ##x_j = 6## so that ##L_1(x) = (6-x)/4## and ##L_2(x) = (x-2)/4## and then computes the integral:
$$
\int_2^6 L_1^2(x) L_2(x) dx = 0.333...
$$
Using the long-hand method and the formula stated above. Which obviously give the same result. But where does this formula come from? How is it derived? I want to know the limitations of this formula (which I assume there are).