Forward Unit Push Operator Equation

In summary, Dan has a theorem that says given a difference equation, one can define a polynomial function such that the solution is the same as the given equation. He proves this theorem by using a negative exponent in the equation and applying the inverse.
  • #1
topsquark
Science Advisor
Insights Author
Gold Member
MHB
2,019
825
Hopefully the symbols I am using are standard. I will define them upon request.

I have a theorem that says, given a difference equation \(\displaystyle \left ( \sum_{j = 0}^m a_j E^j \right ) y_n = \alpha ^n F(n)\), we can define a polynomial function \(\displaystyle \phi (E) = \sum_{j = 0}^m a_j E^j \) such that \(\displaystyle \phi (E) y_n = \alpha ^n F(n)\). I can follow a proof to the following result:
(1) \(\displaystyle \phi (E) \left ( \alpha ^n F(n) \right ) = \alpha ^n \phi ( \alpha E ) F(n)\)

The notes then go on to say, "therefore"
(2) \(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \left ( \alpha ^n F(n) \right ) = \alpha ^n \dfrac{1}{ \phi ( \alpha E )} F(n)\)

Now, the particular solution to the difference equation is written as \(\displaystyle y_p = \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \left ( \alpha ^n F(n) \right )\) and I can use (2) to evaluate this and get the correct result. So I know that (2) is right, without any typos. But how do I get from (1) to (2)?

More details upon request.

-Dan
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #2
I might have what I would call a "formal" solution.

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \alpha ^n F(n) = \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \dfrac{1}{ \dfrac{1}{ \alpha ^n F(n) } } = \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \dfrac{1}{ \alpha ^{-n} F^{-1}(n)}\)

Now, I see no reason why we can't use a negative exponent in the equation (1) in the OP and \(\displaystyle F^{-1}(n)\) is just a function of n. So we can apply (1):
\(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \dfrac{1}{ \alpha ^{-n} F^{-1}(n)} = \dfrac{1}{ \alpha ^{-n} \phi ( \alpha E ) F^{-1}(n)} = \alpha ^n \dfrac{1}{ \phi ( \alpha E) } F(n)\)

So we get
\(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) } \alpha ^n F(n) = \alpha ^n \dfrac{1}{ \phi ( \alpha E) } F(n)\)

as required.

Now, I call this formal because I haven't really "gotten into the gears" of the equation. I've used it but haven't fully explored it so there may be some surprises I'm not aware of. The other reason is that the derivation requires F(n) to never be 0, which wasn't in the notes that I downloaded. Granted, the notes weren't expected to be a complete introduction and they were shot through with typos. So F(n) not zero may well be a requirement on this equation. I'll have to mess with it.

Any thoughts?

-Dan
 
  • #3
Hi Dan,

I like the symbolic argument above. Here is something I scratched out in an attempt to avoid the $F^{-1}(n)$ term:

By definition of the inverse,
$$\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)}\phi(\alpha E) F(n) = F(n)$$
From (1) we get
$$\left[\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)}\alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n}\right] F(n) = F(n)$$
This implies
$$\left[\alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n}\right]F(n) = \phi(\alpha E)F(n)$$
Since $F(n)$ is an arbitrary function of $n$, it follows that
$$\alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n} = \phi(\alpha E)$$
Thus,
$$1 = \alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n}\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)},$$
from which it follows
$$\frac{1}{\phi(E)}\alpha^{n} = \alpha^{n}\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)}$$
The above, when applied to $F(n)$, is the desired result in (2).
 
  • #4
GJA said:
Hi Dan,

I like the symbolic argument above. Here is something I scratched out in an attempt to avoid the $F^{-1}(n)$ term:

By definition of the inverse,
$$\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)}\phi(\alpha E) F(n) = F(n)$$
From (1) we get
$$\left[\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)}\alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n}\right] F(n) = F(n)$$
This implies
$$\left[\alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n}\right]F(n) = \phi(\alpha E)F(n)$$
Since $F(n)$ is an arbitrary function of $n$, it follows that
$$\alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n} = \phi(\alpha E)$$
Thus,
$$1 = \alpha^{-n}\phi(E)\alpha^{n}\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)},$$
from which it follows
$$\frac{1}{\phi(E)}\alpha^{n} = \alpha^{n}\frac{1}{\phi(\alpha E)}$$
The above, when applied to $F(n)$, is the desired result in (2).
I like it! Yes, I have solved a couple of systems and the \(\displaystyle F(n) \neq 0\) condition does not seem to be a problem.

Thanks!

-Dan
 
  • #5
Well, I just found about half the derivation in an (old) online text that was missing some pages. It was far more direct.

\(\displaystyle \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E)} \alpha ^n F(n) = \dfrac{1}{ \phi (E) \alpha ^{-n} } F(n) = \dfrac{1}{ \alpha ^{-n} \phi ( \alpha E)} F(n) = \alpha ^n \dfrac{1}{ \phi ( \alpha E)} F(n)\)

I hadn't thought about separating the factors but \(\displaystyle E^j ( \alpha ^n F(n) ) = \alpha ^{n + j} E^j (F(n)) = \alpha ^{n + j} F(n + j)\) so it makes sense.

-Dan
 

FAQ: Forward Unit Push Operator Equation

What is the Forward Unit Push Operator Equation?

The Forward Unit Push Operator Equation, also known as the FUP operator equation, is a mathematical equation used in quantum mechanics to describe the evolution of a quantum state over time. It is used to calculate the time evolution of a quantum system under the influence of an external force or potential.

How is the Forward Unit Push Operator Equation used in quantum mechanics?

The FUP operator equation is used to calculate the time evolution of a quantum system by describing the change in the state of the system over time. This equation is essential in understanding the behavior of quantum systems and is used in various applications, such as quantum computing and quantum information processing.

What is the significance of the Forward Unit Push Operator Equation in quantum mechanics?

The FUP operator equation is significant in quantum mechanics as it allows us to predict the behavior of quantum systems over time. It also helps us understand the effects of external forces on these systems and how they evolve under these influences. This equation is an essential tool in studying and manipulating quantum systems.

How is the Forward Unit Push Operator Equation derived?

The FUP operator equation is derived using the Schrödinger equation, which describes the time evolution of a quantum system. By applying the unitary transformation to the Schrödinger equation, we can obtain the FUP operator equation, which takes into account the effects of external forces on the system.

What are some practical applications of the Forward Unit Push Operator Equation?

The FUP operator equation has various practical applications in quantum mechanics, including quantum computing, quantum information processing, and quantum simulations. It is also used in studying and understanding the behavior of particles in quantum systems and predicting their behavior under different conditions.

Similar threads

Back
Top