- #1
teroenza
- 195
- 5
Homework Statement
Given the Lagrangian density
[tex] \Lambda = -\frac{1}{c}j^lA_l - \frac{1}{16 \pi} F^{lm}F_{lm} [/tex]
and the Euler-Lagrange equation for it
[tex] \frac{\partial }{\partial x^k}\left ( \frac{\partial \Lambda}{\partial A_{i,k}} \right )- \frac{\partial \Lambda}{\partial A_{i}} =0 [/tex]
derive the inhomogeneous, manifestly covariant, field equations.
Homework Equations
In class we were told
[tex] \frac{\partial \Lambda}{\partial A_{i,k}} = -\frac{1}{4 \pi} F^{kl} [/tex]
as a starting point, and I am trying to show this.
The Attempt at a Solution
I have that
[tex] F_{lm}=\frac{\partial A_m}{\partial x^l}-\frac{\partial A_l}{\partial x^m} [/tex]
and
[tex] F^{lm}=\frac{\partial A^m}{\partial x_l}-\frac{\partial A^l}{\partial x_m} [/tex]
I think I can see how inseting these into the above, possibly taking one of the field tensors to be constant, and taking derivatives (I think the first term does not depend on [itex] A_{i,k} [/itex]) leads to the correct form or we were shown in class. I'm not great at four-tensor manipulation or keeping my indices straight, however.
I am trying to understand how to correctly take these derivatives.
[tex] \frac{\partial }{\partial A_{i,k}} \left ( F^{lm}F_{lm} \right )=0 [/tex]