Fourier Transform: Proving $G(z)$ is an Entire Function

In summary: The ratio test says that if $g(t)$ and $h(t)$ are two differentiable functions with the same domain and range, then $g(t)h(t)$ is differentiable at every point in between.
  • #1
Dustinsfl
2,281
5
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?
 
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  • #2
dwsmith said:
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?
You want to show that $G(z)$ is differentiable at each point $z_0\in\mathbb{C}.$ If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

To prove that that is indeed the case, go back to the definition of derivative and show that $$\left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to0\text{ as }z\to z_0.$$

That should be a reasonably straightforward exercise in epsilons and deltas, using the fact that $G$ is continuous, hence bounded, on $[-\pi,\pi].$
 
  • #3
Opalg said:
You want to show that $G(z)$ is differentiable at each point $z_0\in\mathbb{C}.$ If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

To prove that that is indeed the case, go back to the definition of derivative and show that $$\left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| \to0\text{ as }z\to z_0.$$

That should be a reasonably straightforward exercise in epsilons and deltas, using the fact that $G$ is continuous, hence bounded, on $[-\pi,\pi].$

When you differentiated G, why didn't you differentiate via the product? It appears as if you only differentiated e^{zt} and treated g(t) as a constant.

So I need to do:
Given $\epsilon > 0$.

$ \left|\frac{G(z)-G(z_0)}{z-z_0} - H(z_0)\right| < \epsilon \ \ \text{whenever} \ \ 0<|z - z_0|<\delta $
 
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  • #4
dwsmith said:
When you differentiated G, why didn't you differentiate via the product? It appears as if you only differentiated e^{zt} and treated g(t) as a constant.
When you are differentiating with respect to $\color{red}z$, $g(t)$ is indeed a constant.
 
  • #5
Opalg said:
When you are differentiating with respect to $\color{red}z$, $g(t)$ is indeed a constant.

I check that the C.R. equations are satisfied. Could that work as well?
 
  • #6
Opalg said:
If you differentiate $G(z)$ naively: $\displaystyle\frac d{dz}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)\,dt$ (not worrying about how to justify slipping the differentiation operator past the integral sign), then you see that $G'(z_0)$ "ought" to be equal to $H(z_0)$, where $\displaystyle H(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}te^{zt}g(t)\,dt.$

Why can we slip the differentiation operator past the integral sign?
 
  • #7
dwsmith said:
Let $g:[-\pi,\pi]\to\mathbb{R}$ be a continuous function. Define the Fourier transform of $g$ as
$$
G(z)=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}e^{zt}g(t)dt, \quad \text{for all} \ z\in\mathbb{C}.
$$
Prove that $G(z)$ is an entire function.

That means $G$ has to have no singularities, but other than that I am lost. We have to continuous functions multiplied together but then what?

Ok so $e^{zt} = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^n}{n!}$.

Then
$$
G(z) = \int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(zt)^ng(t)}{n!}dt
$$

$e^{zt}$ converges uniformly on $[-\pi,\pi]$ so we can write
$$
G(z) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\frac{(zt)^ng(t)}{n!}dt
$$

How can I perform the ratio test on this expression?
 
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FAQ: Fourier Transform: Proving $G(z)$ is an Entire Function

What is the Fourier Transform?

The Fourier Transform is a mathematical operation that allows us to decompose a function into its constituent frequencies. It transforms a function from the time or space domain to the frequency domain.

What is an Entire Function?

An entire function is a complex-valued function that is defined and analytic over the entire complex plane. This means that it can be represented by a power series that converges to the function for all values of the complex variable.

How do you prove that $G(z)$ is an Entire Function?

To prove that $G(z)$ is an Entire Function, we need to show that it is defined and analytic over the entire complex plane. This can be done by using the Cauchy-Riemann equations to show that the function satisfies the conditions for analyticity, and then applying the Cauchy Integral Formula to show that it is defined for all values of the complex variable.

What is the significance of proving that $G(z)$ is an Entire Function?

Proving that $G(z)$ is an Entire Function is significant because it allows us to extend the function to the entire complex plane, which means that we can now use it to solve problems in a wider range of domains. It also provides us with a powerful tool for analyzing and understanding complex systems.

Can the Fourier Transform be applied to any function?

Yes, the Fourier Transform can be applied to any function that satisfies certain conditions, such as being continuous and having a finite number of discontinuities. However, the resulting transform may not always be an Entire Function, which is why proving the analyticity of $G(z)$ is important in certain applications.

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