- #1
binbagsss
- 1,307
- 11
Ok so I've seen the convolution theorem written as:
F(h(x)[itex]\otimes[/itex]g(x))=H(k)G(k)
(And this is how it appears when I have a quick google).
My book then does a problem in which is uses:
F(h(x)g(x))=H(k)[itex]\otimes[/itex]G(k)
Where H(k)=F(h(x)) and similarly G(k)=F(g(x)),
and F represents a Fourier transform
My question
- I can't see how these are equivalent at all?
Many Thanks to anyone who can help shed some light !
F(h(x)[itex]\otimes[/itex]g(x))=H(k)G(k)
(And this is how it appears when I have a quick google).
My book then does a problem in which is uses:
F(h(x)g(x))=H(k)[itex]\otimes[/itex]G(k)
Where H(k)=F(h(x)) and similarly G(k)=F(g(x)),
and F represents a Fourier transform
My question
- I can't see how these are equivalent at all?
Many Thanks to anyone who can help shed some light !