Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question

In summary, the conversation discusses the use of a general boundary condition, \psi(x+L)=e^{i\theta}\psi(x), for box normalization in a 1D system with V(x) = 0. The question asks about the impact of the arbitrary phase, \theta, on the energies of a free particle, E=k^2\hbar/(2m). The response clarifies that the phase cannot be set to zero and discusses the physical meaning of the boundary condition in systems with translational symmetry.
  • #1
cscott
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Question

Free particle in 1D where V(x) = 0. There is a general boundary condition [tex]\psi(x+L)=e^{i\theta}\psi(x)[/tex] used for box normalization which has arbitrary phase theta. [tex]E=k^2\hbar/(2m)[/tex] is true for free particle energies.

Attempt

Comparing with the condition [tex]\psi(x+L)=\psi(x)[/tex] I don't see how I will get different energies E since L is still the maximum wavelength, therefore [tex]\lambda = L/n = 2\pi/k[/tex] or [tex]k = 2n\pi/L[/tex] for n = 1, 2, ...; and then energies [tex]E_n[/tex] can be computed.

How do I get theta dependence into the energies for the case [tex]\psi(x+L)=e^{i\theta}\psi(x)[/tex]? Or maybe the better question is do I need theta dependence in the energies for a correct solution? Shouldn't the phase of a wave function have no physical significance?

Given the k above is true then my normalized eigenfunctions would be [tex]\psi_n(x) = L^{-1/2} \exp(i(2\pi n/L)x+i\theta)[/tex]? ...But I'm not sure that k is correct.

Can anyone clear this up for me? Much thanks.
 
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  • #2
The phase is arbitrary, but that does not mean that you can set it to zero when applying the boundary condition.

It may help to consider the physical meaning of the boundary condition above, which occurs when you have translational symmetry in crystal lattices (Bloch waves).

http://www.iue.tuwien.ac.at/phd/smirnov/node41.html
 

FAQ: Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question

What is a "Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question"?

A "Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question" is a common problem in quantum mechanics that involves finding the normalized wavefunction for a particle confined to a one-dimensional box with infinite potential walls.

What is the significance of normalization in this problem?

Normalization is important in this problem because it ensures that the probability of finding the particle within the box is equal to 1. This is a fundamental principle in quantum mechanics and allows us to accurately describe the behavior of particles.

How do you solve a "Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question"?

To solve this type of problem, you first need to find the wavefunction for the particle within the box. This can be done by solving the Schrödinger equation and applying boundary conditions. Once you have the wavefunction, you can then use the normalization condition to determine the constant that makes the wavefunction equal to 1.

What are the boundary conditions for a "Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question"?

The boundary conditions for this type of problem are that the wavefunction must be continuous and its derivative must be discontinuous at the potential walls. This reflects the fact that the particle cannot exist outside of the box, and its wavefunction must go to zero at the walls.

Are there any real-life applications of "Free Particle 1D: Box Normalization Question"?

Yes, this type of problem has many real-life applications in quantum mechanics, such as describing the behavior of electrons in a semiconductor or the motion of atoms in a crystal lattice. It is also used in theoretical physics to study the properties of quantum systems and their interactions.

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