Free particle: Quantum and Classical treatment

In summary, the conversation discusses the calculation of ##\left|Ψ(x,t)\right|^2## from the given equation and the difficulty in obtaining a ##\operatorname{ sinc}^2 ## form for ##|\Psi(x,t)|^2## at ##\ t = ma^2/\hbar\ ##. It also mentions the possibility of using Plancherel's theorem to understand the expression for the wave packet. Later, @Orodruin provides a helpful explanation and a resource for further understanding of the topic. It is also noted that Griffiths has made some changes to the
  • #1
Abdul Quader
14
0
I have a problem finding ##\left|Ψ(x,t)\right|^2## from the following equation:

$$Ψ(x,t) = \frac 1 {\pi \sqrt{2a}} \int_{-∞}^{+∞} \frac {\sin(ka)} k e^{i(kx - \frac {ħk^2} {2m} t)} dk$$

and tried to plot like the pic below (Source Introduction to quantum mechanics by David. J. Griffiths, 2nd Edition, page 75). I need help finding ##\left|Ψ(x,t)\right|^2##.

gffig.2.8.PNG


Does understanding Plancherel's theorem helps understanding the expression of wave packet as follows?
$$Ψ(x,t) = \frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{-∞}^{+∞} \phi(k) e^{i(kx - \frac {ħk^2} {2m} t)} dk$$

I didn't understand how Griffiths arrived at that expression. Thanks in advance.
 

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  • #2
On thing at a time. What expresssion do you have for ##|\Psi(x,t)|^2## ?
 
  • #3
BvU said:
On thing at a time. What expresssion do you have for ##|\Psi(x,t)|^2## ?

Do I calculate something like this?

##|Ψ(x,t)|^2 = (\frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{-∞}^{+∞} \phi(k)e^{i(kx - \frac {ħk^2}{2m}t)}dk)(\frac 1 {\sqrt{2\pi}} \int_{-∞}^{+∞} \phi(k)e^{-i(kx - \frac {ħk^2}{2m}t)}dk)##

I don't know how to do this.
 
  • #4
You rename one of the two integration variables to ##k'## or something and try to merge the two integrals, perhaps ?

( in the griffiths 1995 I have here, your ##\phi(k) ## expression is the outcome of problem 2.21b on page 50, but he doesn't ask any further, just: "(c) Comment on the behaviour of ##\phi(k)## for very small and very large values of a." )
 
  • #5
I am starting to feel quite uneasy about this one: the curve in fig 2.8 looks a lot like ##|\phi(k)|^2_{t=0}## and I find it hard to believe ##|\Psi(x)|^2_{t=...}## should have the same shape (the only one that is its own Fourier transform is the gaussian). What does eq 2.104 look lke ?
Can @Orodruin shed some light on this ?
 
  • #6
Well, Griffiths's QM book again. I'm not sure what Griffiths wants to explain with this, but it's pretty obvious concerning the math.

For free particles the momentum eigenstates are at the same time energy eigenstates and thus the most convenient way to solve the time-dependent Schrödinger equation. In the following for convenience, I set ##\hbar=1##. Griffiths starts with the initial condition in position space,
$$\Psi_0(x)=\Psi(x,0)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 a}} \Theta(-a<x<a),$$
i.e. the box graph in the figure (he plots ##|\Psi|^2## though).

The momentum-space representation of this initial wave function is found by taking its Fourier transform,
$$\tilde{\Psi}_0(p)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}} \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} x \Psi_0(x) \exp(-\mathrm{i} p x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{4 \pi a}} \int_{-a}^{a} \mathrm{d} x \exp(-\mathrm{i} p x) =\frac{\mathrm{1}}{\sqrt{\pi a}} \frac{\sin(a p)}{p}.$$
Now you get the time evolution in the Schrödinger picture by using
$$|\Psi,t \rangle \rangle = \exp(-\mathrm{i} t \hat{H}) |\Psi_0 \rangle=\exp[-\mathrm{i} t \hat{p}^2/(2m) ]|\Psi_0 \rangle.$$
To get the wave function, you have to multiply this with ##\langle x|## from the left and then use the completeness relation of the (generalized) momentum eigenstates:
$$\Psi(t,x)=\langle x|\exp[-\mathrm{i} t p^2/(2m)]|\Psi_0 \rangle = \int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} p \langle x|\exp[-\mathrm{i} t \hat{p}^2/(2m)]|p \rangle \langle p|\Psi_0 \rangle=\int_{\mathbb{R}} \mathrm{d} p \langle x|p \rangle \exp[\mathrm{i} t p^2/(2m)] \langle p|\Psi_0 \rangle = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2 a} \pi} \int_{\mathbb{R}}\mathrm{d} p \exp \left [\mathrm{i} \left (p x-\frac{p^2 t}{2m} \right) \right] \frac{\sin(a p)}{p},$$
which is the given expression.
 
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  • #7
Thanks. However, this time development expression of the Fourier transformed ##\Psi(x, 0) ## is the starting equation in post #1.
Abdul and I will need further help to bring this to a ##\operatorname{ sinc}^2## form for ##|\Psi(x,t)|^2## at ##\ t = ma^2/\hbar\ ## as Grif sketches in the figure ...
 
  • #8
Well that's a pretty tough calculation, even with help of mathematica. Doing the integral directly doesn't give a very helpful result in Mathematica. The trick is to first calculate the derivative of the wave function, which gives a Gaussian integral:
$$\partial_x \Psi(t,x) = \sqrt{\frac{m}{4 \pi a \mathrm{i} t}} \left [\exp \left (\frac{\mathrm{i} m (a+x)^2}{2 t} \right) - \exp \left (\frac{\mathrm{i} m (a-x)^2}{2 t} \right) \right].$$
Integrating wrt. ##x## then gives
$$\Psi(t,x)=-\frac{\mathrm{i}}{\sqrt{8 a}}\left [\text{erfi} \left (\frac{\sqrt{\mathrm{i} m}(a+x)}{\sqrt{2 t}} \right ) + \text{erfi} \left (\frac{\sqrt{\mathrm{i} m}(a-x)}{\sqrt{2 t}} \right ) \right].$$
For the definition of the imaginary error integral, see

http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Erfi.html
 
  • #9
BvU said:
I am starting to feel quite uneasy about this one: the curve in fig 2.8 looks a lot like ##|\phi(k)|^2_{t=0}## and I find it hard to believe ##|\Psi(x)|^2_{t=...}## should have the same shape (the only one that is its own Fourier transform is the gaussian). What does eq 2.104 look lke ?
Can @Orodruin shed some light on this ?

The first equation I have written in the original post is the equation 2.104. Sorry to reply so late.
 
  • #10
Ok, so the caption of fig 2.8 is misleading: it says ##|\Psi(x,t)|^2## but refers to an integral form for ##\Psi(x,t)##.

Did some googling and found The evolution of free wave packets by Mark Andrews (Australian National University), where the second example, figure 3, is interesting !

It shows that all the violence associated with the higher frequencies fades out very rapidly and well before ## \ t = ma^2/\hbar\ ## the shape is like Griffiths draws it.

Moreover, it does all the math (and to me it looks like a lot... :rolleyes: ) that I asked for in #7, including the calculation of an error bound.
And my uneasiness as expressed in #5 turns out to be unnecessary: his equation (31) is indeed a ##\operatorname{ sinc}^2\ ## :cool: !

Thanks to Abdul for putting question marks with a loose treatment in the book and thus pointing at an interesting case.

And thanks to @vanhees71 for his contributions.
##\mathstrut##

And I notice Grif has changed the exercise 2.21 at some point between 1995 and 2005: the solutions manual deals with a ##\Psi(x,0) = Ae^{-ax}## instead of a constant ##A## for ##-a<x<a##

[edit]oops, yes: ##\Psi(x,0) = Ae^{-a|x|}##

##\mathstrut##
 
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  • #11
But ##\Psi(x,0)=A \exp(-a x)## cannot be a proper wave function, since it's not square integrable. A much nicer example, which you can calculate in terms of elementary functions is the Gaussian wave packet, i.e.,
$$\Psi(x,0)=A \exp(-x^2/a^2+\mathrm{i} k_0 x).$$
It's a nice exercise of Fouriertransormations of Gaussian functions ;-)). Have fun!
 
  • #12
BvU said:
And I notice Grif has changed the exercise 2.21 at some point between 1995 and 2005: the solutions manual deals with a ##\Psi(x,0) = Ae^{-ax}## instead of a constant ##A## for ##-a<x<a##

vanhees71 said:
But ##\Psi(x,0)=A \exp(-a x)## cannot be a proper wave function, since it's not square integrable. A much nicer example, which you can calculate in terms of elementary functions is the Gaussian wave packet, i.e.,
$$\Psi(x,0)=A \exp(-x^2/a^2+\mathrm{i} k_0 x).$$
It's a nice exercise of Fouriertransormations of Gaussian functions ;-)). Have fun!

In Problem 2.21 (of the second edition, 2005),
$$\Psi \left(x,0\right) = \exp\left(-a \left|x\right|\right) .$$
A Gaussian wave packet is the subject of Problem 2.22.
 
  • #13
Of course, with the modulus it's a fine initial state.
 

FAQ: Free particle: Quantum and Classical treatment

What is a free particle?

A free particle is a term used in physics to describe a particle that is not under the influence of any external forces. This means that the particle is not being acted upon by any external forces such as gravity, electromagnetic fields, or collisions with other particles.

What is the difference between the quantum and classical treatment of a free particle?

In the quantum treatment of a free particle, the particle is described as a wave function that can exist in multiple states simultaneously. This means that the position and momentum of the particle are uncertain and can only be described in terms of probabilities. In contrast, the classical treatment of a free particle describes the particle as a point object with a definite position and momentum at any given time.

How are energy levels of a free particle determined in the quantum treatment?

In the quantum treatment, the energy levels of a free particle are determined by the particle's wave function and the Schrödinger equation. The wave function describes the probability of the particle's position and momentum, and the Schrödinger equation describes how the wave function evolves over time.

Can a free particle exist in a bound state?

In the quantum treatment, a free particle can exist in a bound state if it is confined by a potential energy barrier. This means that the particle's wave function is limited to a specific region and its energy levels become discrete. In contrast, a free particle in the classical treatment cannot exist in a bound state as it is not affected by potential energy barriers.

Why is the concept of a free particle important in physics?

The concept of a free particle is important in physics as it allows us to simplify complex systems and make predictions about their behavior. Free particles are often used as building blocks in more complicated models, and understanding their properties can help us understand the behavior of larger systems. Additionally, the study of free particles has led to significant advancements in our understanding of quantum mechanics and its applications in various fields such as technology and medicine.

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