Undergrad Freqeuncy of Matter Waves Approaches Infinity as Velocity Approaches c

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The discussion centers on the relationship between the phase velocity of matter waves and their frequency as velocity approaches the speed of light (c). It posits that as momentum increases and wavelength decreases, the frequency of matter waves may approach infinity, potentially allowing for a finite speed. The equation E = ymc^2 is referenced to support this idea, alongside the concept of time dilation affecting frequency perception for moving observers. A citation from De Broglie's 1924 paper is provided to substantiate the claims about phase velocity. The conversation highlights the need for deeper understanding of these concepts rather than accepting them at face value.
hisgutsaysmaybe
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If phase velocity = fλ, and as group velocity -> c, λ -> 0 but phase velocity -> c, then does this mean that f -> infinity as group velocity -> c?
I have heard that the phase velocity of matter waves can be represented as c^2/v. But if the wavelength of these matter waves goes to zero as momentum approaches infinity and v approaches c, then does this mean that the frequency of the matter waves approaches infinity, to give the matter wave a finite and nonzero speed?
In a way this might make sense, because E = ymc^2, so hf = ymc^2. However, the time of an event dilates for an observer which is moving with respect to the event, also by a factor of gamma. I had believed that these two phenomena might combine to appear to give the matter wave a constant frequency, regardless of the velocity of the observer.
 
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hisgutsaysmaybe said:
I have heard
Where? Please give a reference.
 
From De Broglie's 1924 paper, page 10 (445 of the journal):
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Taken from this PDF version: https://www.pwein.at/physics/Lectures/Famous-Papers/Phil-Mag-47-446-1924.pdf

I learned in school that the phase velocity was c^2/v, and I have taken it as fact without trying to understand why yet.
 
Time reversal invariant Hamiltonians must satisfy ##[H,\Theta]=0## where ##\Theta## is time reversal operator. However, in some texts (for example see Many-body Quantum Theory in Condensed Matter Physics an introduction, HENRIK BRUUS and KARSTEN FLENSBERG, Corrected version: 14 January 2016, section 7.1.4) the time reversal invariant condition is introduced as ##H=H^*##. How these two conditions are identical?

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