- #1
Sci-Fry
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This isn't really a homework question but I felt this is the most relevant section for this. I therefore apologize for not following the standard post template.
I was going through my electrical engineering notes on frequency response functions. It was explaining how to plot frequency response functions on polar diagrams and had the following two steps, which I didn't quite understand. It got to this:
That's fine, but I didn't understand how they jumped to the next step:
The point of writing it in this form is that the frequency response can now be plotted as a semi-circle on the Argand diagram. However, I don't understand how they did this step so easily. Is there something I'm not spotting? What is the method from getting from the previous step to this one?
Many thanks,
Sci-Fry
I was going through my electrical engineering notes on frequency response functions. It was explaining how to plot frequency response functions on polar diagrams and had the following two steps, which I didn't quite understand. It got to this:
[tex]G(j\omega) = x + jy = \frac{1}{R}\frac{1-j\omega T}{1+(\omega T)^2}[/tex]
It is easy to write:
[tex]x=\frac{1}{R}\frac{1}{1+(\omega T)^2} ; y=\frac{1}{R}\frac{-\omega T}{1+(\omega T)^2}[/tex]
That's fine, but I didn't understand how they jumped to the next step:
From which it is straightforward to eliminate \omegaT to give
[tex](x-\frac{1}{2R})^2 + y^2 = (\frac{1}{4R})^2[/tex]
The point of writing it in this form is that the frequency response can now be plotted as a semi-circle on the Argand diagram. However, I don't understand how they did this step so easily. Is there something I'm not spotting? What is the method from getting from the previous step to this one?
Many thanks,
Sci-Fry