- #1
brunob
- 15
- 0
Hi there!
The question is: if I have to prove that a function is a change of variable it is sufficient to prove that the function is a diffeomorphism? i.e. prove that the function is bijective, differentiable, and its inverse is differentiable?
Thanks!
The question is: if I have to prove that a function is a change of variable it is sufficient to prove that the function is a diffeomorphism? i.e. prove that the function is bijective, differentiable, and its inverse is differentiable?
Thanks!