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Hi All,
Say we have a relation R ( i.e., a table in a relational DB ), which has a primary key PK, but R is not
in 1 NF. I guess we then conclude that PK _does not_ functionally-determine the table, since, after
the table is put in 1NF, PK is o longer the primary key, right? It seems obviously true, but I have
been wrong before...
Thanks.
Say we have a relation R ( i.e., a table in a relational DB ), which has a primary key PK, but R is not
in 1 NF. I guess we then conclude that PK _does not_ functionally-determine the table, since, after
the table is put in 1NF, PK is o longer the primary key, right? It seems obviously true, but I have
been wrong before...
Thanks.