- #36
gionole
- 281
- 24
Thanks for the help. You don't have to answer, but I will still mention the below.
I think the distinction is, from looking outside(ground frame), we see the ball which moves, because the car moves and movement of the tilted string/ball is because there's acceleration on it by the tension. but from inside the car, we look at the ball, we see it's stationary and you say that if it's stationary, why is it tilted backwards ? in that case, ok, fictitous force causes this, but why do we even ask this question: "why the ball is tilted backwards" - it is because previous event caused it or the question we're asking is why does it stay tilted ? well if it's stationary, then it will remain at rest then until force acts on it so what's the correct question we should be asking that newtonian law fails to explain ?
I didn't know that it was that complicated. That means my analysis of force delay thing is wrong. That's just great. Were you describing the case when the ball is already swung backwards ?Dale said:When there is a "before accelerating" and a "when acceleration happened" then the acceleration is non-uniform. I don't want to deal with the transient mess of the swinging ball. Good luck.
I believe, you mean, looking at it from inside the car, the ball is stationary. It's tilted, but it doesn't move, just stays tilted.In the car frame (assuming uniformly accelerating car) the ball does not accelerate. It hangs at rest at an angle. The tension should make it accelerate horizontally, but it does not. So the fictitious force must be pulling it backwards to prevent it from accelerating.
Wouldn't the ball still stay tilted at the angle all the time the same way here as well ? it's just from the ground frame, the tilted string ball for sure moves past the observer because the car is moving.In the inertial frame the ball is accelerating horizontally. The real force is the tension acting on the ball.
I think the distinction is, from looking outside(ground frame), we see the ball which moves, because the car moves and movement of the tilted string/ball is because there's acceleration on it by the tension. but from inside the car, we look at the ball, we see it's stationary and you say that if it's stationary, why is it tilted backwards ? in that case, ok, fictitous force causes this, but why do we even ask this question: "why the ball is tilted backwards" - it is because previous event caused it or the question we're asking is why does it stay tilted ? well if it's stationary, then it will remain at rest then until force acts on it so what's the correct question we should be asking that newtonian law fails to explain ?