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Hi. If calculations of the Lorentz factor are by thought experiments using the constancy of the speed of light in inertial frames (I also know of using simultaneous equations for a light signal in two different frames with a conjectured Lorentz factor to calculate it but this also involves light!) then how is it possible to generalise the result to all objects in inertial frames not involving light, unless it is the reflection of light that is of concern, but I've never seen it derived this way? Forgive my naivety.