- #1
- 718
- 163
Hi!
So I have noticed that phenomena, like gravitational lensing, are proven to exist, and GR is the only logical reasoning for them? If those parts of it have been proven, how could GR be possibly wrong? And if it was correct, wouldn't there have to be a way to make it work on a quantum level, as classical physics needs to be consistent with quantum physics? Please help me understand why this whole controversy is going on when much of GR has been experimentally proven.
Thanks!
P.S. Please don't get mad if this question is idiotic, I am only 13 and I have found PF a great place to expand my knowledge.
So I have noticed that phenomena, like gravitational lensing, are proven to exist, and GR is the only logical reasoning for them? If those parts of it have been proven, how could GR be possibly wrong? And if it was correct, wouldn't there have to be a way to make it work on a quantum level, as classical physics needs to be consistent with quantum physics? Please help me understand why this whole controversy is going on when much of GR has been experimentally proven.
Thanks!
P.S. Please don't get mad if this question is idiotic, I am only 13 and I have found PF a great place to expand my knowledge.