- #1
techmologist
- 306
- 12
If the gradients of the two functions f and g are proportional everywhere in Rn, does that mean there is some differentiable function F of two variables such that F(f(x),g(x)) = 0 everywhere?
The converse is obviously true by the chain rule, so I was just wondering if this was true, too.
The converse is obviously true by the chain rule, so I was just wondering if this was true, too.