- #1
Cobalt101
- 27
- 0
I'm interested to understand the interpretation of gravity as a result of exchange of force particles (ie gravitons) vs General Relativity-based warping of space-time. Related to this is while a constraint to speed of cause and effect would apply to the graviton-based concept, why should this limit apply to space-time warping ? Re this latter point, I understand that while gravitational waves have been postulated there is yet no evidence of them (in fact recent 2014 findings appear now to have been caused by interstellar dust. So I think my question can be distilled down to how can the theories of gravity as a particle-based force vs a space-time warp be reconciled, and what are the key implications of this ?