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Artusartos
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There is a corollary in our textbook that states "Let G be a group of order 12 whose 3-Sylow subgroups are not normal. THen G is isomorphic to [itex]A_4[/itex]."
I attached the proof of this corollary and an additional corollary and proposition that was used for the proof.
The 2nd last paragraph is a bit confusing for me...
"As shown in either Problem 14 of Exercises 4.6.13 or Problem 3 of Exercises 4.7.27,
the automorphism group of [itex]Z_2 × Z_2[/itex] is isomorphic to S3. It’s easy to see that there are only two nontrivial homomorphisms from [itex]Z_3[/itex] into [itex]S_3 \cong D_6[/itex], and that one is obtained from the other by precomposing with an automorphism of [itex]Z_3[/itex]. Thus, Proposition 4.6.11 shows that there is exactly one isomorphism class of semidirect products [itex](Z_2×Z_2) \rtimes_{\alpha} Z_3[/itex] which is nonabelian."
1) I'm not sure how it is "easy to see that there are only two nontrivial homomorphisms"...and I don't understand what the phrase "and that one is obtained from the other by precomposing with an automorphism of [itex]Z_3[/itex]" means. What do "one" and "other" refer to?
2) "Thus, Proposition 4.6.11 shows that there is exactly one isomorphism class of semidirect products [itex](Z_2×Z_2) \rtimes_{\alpha} Z_3[/itex] which is nonabelian." I'm not sure how the proposition allows us to see that.
Thanks in advance
I attached the proof of this corollary and an additional corollary and proposition that was used for the proof.
The 2nd last paragraph is a bit confusing for me...
"As shown in either Problem 14 of Exercises 4.6.13 or Problem 3 of Exercises 4.7.27,
the automorphism group of [itex]Z_2 × Z_2[/itex] is isomorphic to S3. It’s easy to see that there are only two nontrivial homomorphisms from [itex]Z_3[/itex] into [itex]S_3 \cong D_6[/itex], and that one is obtained from the other by precomposing with an automorphism of [itex]Z_3[/itex]. Thus, Proposition 4.6.11 shows that there is exactly one isomorphism class of semidirect products [itex](Z_2×Z_2) \rtimes_{\alpha} Z_3[/itex] which is nonabelian."
1) I'm not sure how it is "easy to see that there are only two nontrivial homomorphisms"...and I don't understand what the phrase "and that one is obtained from the other by precomposing with an automorphism of [itex]Z_3[/itex]" means. What do "one" and "other" refer to?
2) "Thus, Proposition 4.6.11 shows that there is exactly one isomorphism class of semidirect products [itex](Z_2×Z_2) \rtimes_{\alpha} Z_3[/itex] which is nonabelian." I'm not sure how the proposition allows us to see that.
Thanks in advance