- #1
andresordonez
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Hi, I don't understand why the momentum probability distribution of the quantum mechanical oscillator has the same shape as the position probability distribution (with peaks at the extremes), I mean, I understand the mathematics but I don't understand the concept.
This is my reasoning (which I'm sure is wrong, but I don't see why)
The position probability distribution has peaks (for high energies) approximately at the positions corresponding to the amplitude of the classical oscillator. The physical explanation of this, is that the oscillator spends more time in the extreme positions because there its velocity is close to zero.
But then what this means is that if I measured (classically) many times the position of the oscillator (at a fixed energy) I would get that most of the measurements would have the oscillator in the extreme positions (where the momentum would be close to zero) right?
How come then, that if I measure many times the momentum I get most of the measurements with a high momentum?? (in other words, that the momentum probability distribution has peaks at the extremes)
Thanks
This is my reasoning (which I'm sure is wrong, but I don't see why)
The position probability distribution has peaks (for high energies) approximately at the positions corresponding to the amplitude of the classical oscillator. The physical explanation of this, is that the oscillator spends more time in the extreme positions because there its velocity is close to zero.
But then what this means is that if I measured (classically) many times the position of the oscillator (at a fixed energy) I would get that most of the measurements would have the oscillator in the extreme positions (where the momentum would be close to zero) right?
How come then, that if I measure many times the momentum I get most of the measurements with a high momentum?? (in other words, that the momentum probability distribution has peaks at the extremes)
Thanks
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