- #1
jeebs
- 325
- 4
I have a planar molecule with a torsional oscillation mode where it twists around a C-C bond by an angle [tex] \theta [/tex] from some equilibrium position.
The restoring force is a function of theta, and the potential energy involved is given by [tex] V(\theta) = V_0(1-cos(2\theta)) [/tex]
I need to "use a Taylor expansion to approximate the system as a harmonic oscillator about the equilibrium point [tex] \theta = 0 [/tex]. Write down the Hamiltonian for the harmonic oscillator and find the frequency of oscillation [tex] \omega [/tex]."
I am also told that the kinetic energy is [tex] T = \frac{L^2}{2I} [/tex] where L is angular momentum conjugate to [tex] \theta [/tex] and I is the relevant moment of inertia.
So, I have my Taylor (well Maclaurin specifically) series expression, [tex] f(x) = \Sigma \frac{f^(^n^)(0)}{n!}x^n [/tex].
I know in the case of a mass on an ideal spring we have simple harmonic motion described by [tex] \frac{d^2x}{dt^2} = - k^2x [/tex], which says that the mass' accelleration is directly proportional to the displacement from equilibrium, and acting in the opposition direction to the displacement. I assume that for angular displacement I can write exactly the same type of equation, [tex] \frac{d^2\theta}{dt^2} = - k^2\theta [/tex]. This has the solution [tex] \theta(t) = e^i^\omega^t [/tex].
So, I'm not sure where to go from here. It wants an approximation to a harmonic oscillator, so I have stuck my harmonic oscillator equation [tex] \theta(t) = e^i^\omega^t [/tex] into the Taylor expansion, and truncated it after the third term, where I have [tex] \theta(t) = 1 + i\omega t - \omega^2 t^2 + ... [/tex]
However, I'm a bit suspicious that I haven't done what I am being asked here, because the question does not explicitly mention anything with a t dependence, and the question is talking about oscillations about [tex] \theta(t) = 0 [/tex]. That to me suggests that I should in fact be putting [tex] V(\theta) [/tex] into the Taylor series [tex] f(x) = \Sigma \frac{f^(^n^)(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n [/tex], where a would be the angular displacement from equilibrium, ie. [tex]a = \theta_0 = 0[/tex] in this case.
Having done that I get [tex] V(\theta) = 4V_0\theta^2 - 16V_0\theta^4 +... [/tex] if I truncate it to the first two non-zero terms. Moving on to the Hamiltonian part, I have said [tex] H = T + V = \frac{L^2}{2I} +4V_0\theta^2 - 16V_0\theta^4 [/tex]. I don't think there's anything more I can do with this, so I want to then try and find the frequency of oscillation. I thought about just substituting my [tex] \theta(t) = e^i^\omega^t [/tex] into that Hamitonian but couldn't see a way to proceed after that.
So, am I approaching this the right way?
Can anybody suggest a way forward for me?
Thanks.
The restoring force is a function of theta, and the potential energy involved is given by [tex] V(\theta) = V_0(1-cos(2\theta)) [/tex]
I need to "use a Taylor expansion to approximate the system as a harmonic oscillator about the equilibrium point [tex] \theta = 0 [/tex]. Write down the Hamiltonian for the harmonic oscillator and find the frequency of oscillation [tex] \omega [/tex]."
I am also told that the kinetic energy is [tex] T = \frac{L^2}{2I} [/tex] where L is angular momentum conjugate to [tex] \theta [/tex] and I is the relevant moment of inertia.
So, I have my Taylor (well Maclaurin specifically) series expression, [tex] f(x) = \Sigma \frac{f^(^n^)(0)}{n!}x^n [/tex].
I know in the case of a mass on an ideal spring we have simple harmonic motion described by [tex] \frac{d^2x}{dt^2} = - k^2x [/tex], which says that the mass' accelleration is directly proportional to the displacement from equilibrium, and acting in the opposition direction to the displacement. I assume that for angular displacement I can write exactly the same type of equation, [tex] \frac{d^2\theta}{dt^2} = - k^2\theta [/tex]. This has the solution [tex] \theta(t) = e^i^\omega^t [/tex].
So, I'm not sure where to go from here. It wants an approximation to a harmonic oscillator, so I have stuck my harmonic oscillator equation [tex] \theta(t) = e^i^\omega^t [/tex] into the Taylor expansion, and truncated it after the third term, where I have [tex] \theta(t) = 1 + i\omega t - \omega^2 t^2 + ... [/tex]
However, I'm a bit suspicious that I haven't done what I am being asked here, because the question does not explicitly mention anything with a t dependence, and the question is talking about oscillations about [tex] \theta(t) = 0 [/tex]. That to me suggests that I should in fact be putting [tex] V(\theta) [/tex] into the Taylor series [tex] f(x) = \Sigma \frac{f^(^n^)(a)}{n!}(x-a)^n [/tex], where a would be the angular displacement from equilibrium, ie. [tex]a = \theta_0 = 0[/tex] in this case.
Having done that I get [tex] V(\theta) = 4V_0\theta^2 - 16V_0\theta^4 +... [/tex] if I truncate it to the first two non-zero terms. Moving on to the Hamiltonian part, I have said [tex] H = T + V = \frac{L^2}{2I} +4V_0\theta^2 - 16V_0\theta^4 [/tex]. I don't think there's anything more I can do with this, so I want to then try and find the frequency of oscillation. I thought about just substituting my [tex] \theta(t) = e^i^\omega^t [/tex] into that Hamitonian but couldn't see a way to proceed after that.
So, am I approaching this the right way?
Can anybody suggest a way forward for me?
Thanks.