- #1
eoghan
- 210
- 7
Hi!
I'm studying Sterman-Weinberg Jets in QFT and I came about with this integral. Despite it is very simple, I can't solve it.
The integral is
[tex]
\int_{\theta=\pi-\delta}^{\theta=\pi}\frac{d\cos (\theta)}{1-\cos^2(\theta)}
[/tex]
Solving it I get
[tex]
\frac{1}{2}\left[\log\left(\frac{1+\cos\delta}{1-\cos\delta}\right)-\log\left(\frac{1-\cos\delta}{1+\cos\delta}\right)\right]
[/tex]
However, the text states that the result is proportional to
[tex]
\log\delta^2
[/tex]
Any ideas?
I'm studying Sterman-Weinberg Jets in QFT and I came about with this integral. Despite it is very simple, I can't solve it.
The integral is
[tex]
\int_{\theta=\pi-\delta}^{\theta=\pi}\frac{d\cos (\theta)}{1-\cos^2(\theta)}
[/tex]
Solving it I get
[tex]
\frac{1}{2}\left[\log\left(\frac{1+\cos\delta}{1-\cos\delta}\right)-\log\left(\frac{1-\cos\delta}{1+\cos\delta}\right)\right]
[/tex]
However, the text states that the result is proportional to
[tex]
\log\delta^2
[/tex]
Any ideas?