- #1
dRic2
Gold Member
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Hi, I'm going to cite a book that I'am reading
Can anyone provide some simple references where I can find at least an intuition regarding what is stated by the author.
Thanks,
Ric
It is in the general theory of differential equations that the right-hand side of
$$y''''(x) = \rho (x)$$
can be prescribed arbitrary only if the corresponding homogeneous differential equation has no solution except the trivial solution ##y=0##. In all the previous cases the boundary conditions were such that the differential equation
$$y''''(x) = 0$$
had no solution under the given boundary conditions. Here, however, two such independent solution exist, namely
$$y = 1$$
$$y = x$$
In such case our boundary value problem is not solvable unless ##\rho(x)## is "orthogonal" to the homogeneous solutions - i.e.
$$\int_0^l \rho(x)dx = 0$$
$$\int_0^l \rho(x)xdx = 0$$
Can anyone provide some simple references where I can find at least an intuition regarding what is stated by the author.
Thanks,
Ric