- #36
russ_watters
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Yes, these are totally unrelated issues.Kaneki123 said:You said''The fact that a force of 10N is applied to accelerate the object at first does not imply it applies a force of 10N on the second object''...So is this a fact that the the force applied on first object is not necessarily equal to the force it applies to the second object?...Because if it is not equal then of course there would be a net force on first object...