- #1
mattmns
- 1,128
- 6
[SOLVED] Probability (cdf question)
Here is the problem from the book
-----------
Let X be a random variable with distribution function (cdf)
[tex]
F(x)=\begin{cases}
0 &\text{for } x\geq 0\\
\frac{x}{8} & \text{for } 0 \leq x < 1\\
\frac{1}{4} + \frac{x}{8} & \text{for } 1 \leq x < 2\\
\frac{3}{4} + \frac{x}{12} & \text{for } 2 \leq x < 3\\
1 & \text{for } x \geq 3\end{cases}
[/tex]
Calculate [tex]P(1 \leq X \leq 2)[/tex].
----------------
This should be a simple question, but I am getting a different answer than my book is, and I believe the book is wrong (how could I be wrong? ).Here is what I did:
[tex]
\begin{align*}
P(1 \leq X \leq 2) & = P(1 \leq X < 2) \\
& = P(X < 2) - P(X \leq 1) \\
& = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{2}{8} - \left(\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8}\right) \\
& = \frac{1}{8}
\end{align*}
[/tex]
We could also get the same answer by finding the pdf and then integrating it over the interval (1,2).The book I have gives an answer of [tex]\frac{19}{24}[/tex].
Here is what they did:
[tex]
\begin{align*}
P(1 \leq X \leq 2) & = P(X\leq 2) - P(X < 1) \\
& = F(2) - \lim_{x\to 1^-}F(x) \\
& = \frac{11}{12} - \frac{1}{8} \\
& = \frac{19}{24}\\
\end{align*}
[/tex]
In my opinion this seems doubly wrong. They used the wrong function on both, but at least they were consistent I suppose. Am I being silly here and missing something, or is the book wrong? Thanks!edit... I am looking at my book, and they have [tex]P(a < X \leq b) = F(b) - F(a)[/tex]. Now I won't argue with this, but the way it is used in the above example seems completely counterintuitive to me. I will admit my use of the cdf may be dubious for P(X < 2), but it feels right. Maybe the book is right after all. Thoughts?
Here is the problem from the book
-----------
Let X be a random variable with distribution function (cdf)
[tex]
F(x)=\begin{cases}
0 &\text{for } x\geq 0\\
\frac{x}{8} & \text{for } 0 \leq x < 1\\
\frac{1}{4} + \frac{x}{8} & \text{for } 1 \leq x < 2\\
\frac{3}{4} + \frac{x}{12} & \text{for } 2 \leq x < 3\\
1 & \text{for } x \geq 3\end{cases}
[/tex]
Calculate [tex]P(1 \leq X \leq 2)[/tex].
----------------
This should be a simple question, but I am getting a different answer than my book is, and I believe the book is wrong (how could I be wrong? ).Here is what I did:
[tex]
\begin{align*}
P(1 \leq X \leq 2) & = P(1 \leq X < 2) \\
& = P(X < 2) - P(X \leq 1) \\
& = \frac{1}{4} + \frac{2}{8} - \left(\frac{1}{4} + \frac{1}{8}\right) \\
& = \frac{1}{8}
\end{align*}
[/tex]
We could also get the same answer by finding the pdf and then integrating it over the interval (1,2).The book I have gives an answer of [tex]\frac{19}{24}[/tex].
Here is what they did:
[tex]
\begin{align*}
P(1 \leq X \leq 2) & = P(X\leq 2) - P(X < 1) \\
& = F(2) - \lim_{x\to 1^-}F(x) \\
& = \frac{11}{12} - \frac{1}{8} \\
& = \frac{19}{24}\\
\end{align*}
[/tex]
In my opinion this seems doubly wrong. They used the wrong function on both, but at least they were consistent I suppose. Am I being silly here and missing something, or is the book wrong? Thanks!edit... I am looking at my book, and they have [tex]P(a < X \leq b) = F(b) - F(a)[/tex]. Now I won't argue with this, but the way it is used in the above example seems completely counterintuitive to me. I will admit my use of the cdf may be dubious for P(X < 2), but it feels right. Maybe the book is right after all. Thoughts?
Last edited: