- #1
Baggio
- 211
- 1
If a and N coprime, a < N and r is even how can
a^(r) = 1 mod(N) be written as
a^(r) - 1 = 0 mod(N) ?
I don't know much number theory (I'm a physics student)
Thanks
a^(r) = 1 mod(N) be written as
a^(r) - 1 = 0 mod(N) ?
I don't know much number theory (I'm a physics student)
Thanks