- #1
FaraDazed
- 347
- 2
Homework Statement
Basically, this is part C of a question where in part A we had to use the RHS of the divergence theorem below to calculate the LHS, and then in part B we had to calculate the divergene of F, which came to be 0. and part C asks us how can this be? Since in part A we used the LHS and shown that it does not equal 0.
For reference, although I doubt it matters, this was for a sphere centered at the origin, and [itex]\vec{F}=\nabla \frac{1}{r}[/itex]
I had no issues calculating divF or the RHS but just cannot get my head around how divF equals 0, yet the volume integral of divF does not.
Homework Equations
[tex]
\int \int \int_V \nabla \cdot \vec{F} dV =\int \int_S \vec{F} \cdot d \vec{S}
[/tex]
The Attempt at a Solution
I had no issues calculating divF or the RHS but just cannot get my head around how divF equals 0, yet the volume integral of divF does not.
Is it simply because [itex]\vec{F}=\nabla \frac{1}{r}[/itex] and so is not defined at (0,0,0) ? I have tried searching google and cannot find much. I am not sure if this post is in the right place, it does refer to a coursework question, but there's no math involved in this question.
Any help is much appreciated.