How can I prove the Laplace transform of t^n step by step?

In summary, the conversation discusses finding a solution using proof by induction and integration by parts for the equation \int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-st}dt=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}} for all non-negative integers n. The process involves showing it is true for n=0, assuming it is true for a single value of n, and then showing it is true for n+1 using integration by parts.
  • #1
Crazy Gnome
13
0
I know the final result, its on all the charts. But I need to show step by step how to get the solution.

If someone could help out by getting me in the right direction or just plain giving me the answer, that would be much appreciated:smile:.
 
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  • #2
Well probably a best way would be a proof by induction. Do you know what that is?

Edit: I'll add to this. You want to show [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-st}dt=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}}[/tex] for all non-negative integers n. To do this, first show it is true for n=0. Then assume it is true for arbitrary n, and show that it is true for n+1, ie: [tex]\int_{0}^{\infty}t^ne^{-st}dt=\frac{n!}{s^{n+1}}\rightarrow\int_{0}^{\infty}t^{n+1}e^{-st}dt=\frac{(n+1)!}{s^{n+2}}[/tex]. This can easily be done with an integration by parts.
 
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  • #3
nicksauce, technical point: you should say :"assume it is true for arbitrary n" because that is what you are trying to prove! What you should say is "assume it is true for a single value of n" and then show it is true for n+1. I personally prefer to say "assume it is true for some k" so as not to confuse the specific value with the general value.

Crazy Gnome, the step from n to n+ 1 (or k to k+1) should be easy to do using integration by parts. Oh, and, of course, you need to show it is true for n= 1 or n= 0 depending on whether you are talking about all natural numbers or all whole numbers.
 
  • #4
HallsofIvy said:
nicksauce, technical point: you should say :"assume it is true for arbitrary n" because that is what you are trying to prove! What you should say is "assume it is true for a single value of n" and then show it is true for n+1. I personally prefer to say "assume it is true for some k" so as not to confuse the specific value with the general value.

Yes, you're right. I meant to say "an arbitrary n" but left out the "an". And yes, using 'k' is indeed much more clear.
 

FAQ: How can I prove the Laplace transform of t^n step by step?

What is a Laplace transform?

A Laplace transform is a mathematical operation that converts a function of time into a function of complex frequency. It is commonly used in engineering and physics to solve differential equations.

What is the Laplace transform of t^n?

The Laplace transform of t^n, denoted as L{t^n}, is equal to n!/s^(n+1), where s is the complex frequency. This can also be written as n!/s * s^(-n-1).

How do you solve a Laplace transform of t^n?

To solve the Laplace transform of t^n, you can use the property of linearity, which states that the Laplace transform of a sum of functions is equal to the sum of the individual Laplace transforms. You can also use the property of differentiation, which states that the Laplace transform of the derivative of a function is equal to s times the Laplace transform of the original function.

What is the inverse Laplace transform of t^n?

The inverse Laplace transform of t^n is equal to (-1)^n * d^n/ds^n * (1/s), where d^n/ds^n is the nth derivative of the function with respect to s. This can also be written as (-1)^n * d^n/ds^n * (e^(-s))/s.

What are the applications of Laplace transform of t^n?

The Laplace transform of t^n has various applications in engineering and physics, including solving differential equations, analyzing electronic circuits, and studying control systems. It is also used in signal processing and image reconstruction.

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