- #1
jerometurner
- 6
- 0
Homework Statement
Assume f ^-1 (inverse) has a derivative. Use the chain rule to prove that
(f^-1)' (f(x)) = 1/f'(x)
Homework Equations
No real equations other than definition of chain rule.
The Attempt at a Solution
I'm not sure how to start other than with the definition of (f^-1) (f(x)) = x