How can the coefficient of friction change? Does it?

In summary: When you say "if the relation you used was correct it would mean that μ=tanα is increasing as α is increasing from 0 to π/2 and you would have infinite friction as α approaches π/2," you are correct in that if the relation you used was correct it would mean that μ=tanα is increasing as α is increasing from 0 to π/2, but this is not what happens.
  • #1
Ameer Bux
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Homework Statement


The coefficient of static and kinetic friction is constant for a specific surface. On an incline plane s and k are both equal to tan of the inclined angle. If the angle increases then tan changes which means the coefficient of friction changes. How is this so?

Homework Equations


Fs = s x Fn
s = tan

The Attempt at a Solution


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  • #2
The coefficients are considered to be constants, independent of the angle of incline. However, you could have a particular situation where the angle of the incline happens to be such that the tangent of the angle equals the coefficient of friction. If you changed the angle, then the tangent of the angle would no longer equal the coefficient.
 
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  • #3
No it does not change as the angle changes: the friction coefficient only depends on the nature of the materials in contact.
When you say μ=tanθ you have to remind that θ is the maximun angle for which the body is still at rest.
So if α is your actual angle, you have no motion until α<θ: if the relation you used was correct it would mean that μ=tanα is increasing as α is increasing from 0 to π/2 and you would have infinite friction as α approaches π/2, and I'm sure you agree that would make no sense
 
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  • #4
+1

The coefficient of static friction allows you to calculate the max force that is needed to overcome friction. If the applied force is lower then the friction force will also be lower.
 
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  • #5
Ameer Bux said:
constant for a specific surface.
No, it is constant for a specific combination of two surfaces in contact.
Ameer Bux said:
s and k are both equal to tan of the inclined angle.
Others have answered this in various ways. Here's another.
It is merely that you are used to questions in which either the object is about to slip (μs=tan θ) or is slipping at constant speed (μk=tan θ). I.e., the angle is just that angle which achieves the relevant condition, given the coefficient.
 
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  • #6
Ameer Bux said:

Homework Statement


The coefficient of static and kinetic friction is constant for a specific surface. On an incline plane s and k are both equal to tan of the inclined angle. If the angle increases then tan changes which means the coefficient of friction changes. How is this so?

Homework Equations


Fs = s x Fn
s = tan

The Attempt at a Solution


Attached picture
Coefficient of friction, aka mu, cannot change because Force of friction and Force of normal change proportionally to the inclined angle theta.
 
  • #7
Hi @deepblue2 and welcome to PF.

Q1. You are replying to a 7 year old thread; is that deliberate?

deepblue29 said:
Coefficient of friction, aka mu, cannot change because Force of friction and Force of normal change proportionally to the inclined angle theta.
Consider an object resting on an inclined plane. You appear to be saying that if the angle changes from (say) 44.5º to 89º, the normal force will double and the frictional force will double.

Q2. Is that what you mean?

It will help if you can answer both questions.
 
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  • #8
Steve4Physics said:
Hi @deepblue2 and welcome to PF.

Q1. You are replying to a 7 year old thread; is that deliberate?Consider an object resting on an inclined plane. You appear to be saying that if the angle changes from (say) 44.5º to 89º, the normal force will double and the frictional force will double.

Q2. Is that what you mean?

It will help if you can answer both questions.
I don't understand what you mean by deliberate. I am just responding to a question with my knowledge that I have of physics, regardless of the date. What I mean is that as Θ theta gets bigger, the Force of normal gets smaller and same for the Force of friction. They get proportionally changed, which means that the mu is constant.
 
  • #9
deepblue29 said:
I don't understand what you mean by deliberate. I am just responding to a question with my knowledge that I have of physics, regardless of the date.
Some replies are posted by accident because the poster didn't realise that the thread was many years old. I was checking to help you avoid accidentally wasting your time!

deepblue29 said:
What I mean is that as Θ theta gets bigger, the Force of normal gets smaller and same for the Force of friction. They get proportionally changed, which means that the mu is constant
Beware of oversimplification. For the simple case of a block resting on an inclined plane, as the angle increases, the frictional force will change from:

i) non-limiting static friction (no sliding when angle is small);

ii) limiting static frction (sliding about to start at some unique angle);

iii) kinetic friction (sliding occurs for large enough angle).

The 3 cases are handled differently.
 

FAQ: How can the coefficient of friction change? Does it?

1. How does the type of surface affect the coefficient of friction?

The coefficient of friction is influenced by the type of surface the object is sliding or rolling on. Rougher surfaces tend to have higher coefficients of friction, as there are more points of contact between the two surfaces. Smooth surfaces, on the other hand, have lower coefficients of friction as there is less resistance between the two surfaces.

2. Can the coefficient of friction change over time?

Yes, the coefficient of friction can change over time due to various factors such as wear and tear on the surfaces, changes in temperature, and the presence of lubricants. For example, as a car's tires wear down, the coefficient of friction between the tires and the road decreases, resulting in reduced traction and increased stopping distance.

3. Does the weight of an object affect the coefficient of friction?

Yes, the weight of an object can affect the coefficient of friction. Heavier objects tend to have higher coefficients of friction as they exert more force on the surface, increasing the resistance between the two surfaces. This is why it is harder to push or slide a heavy object compared to a lighter one.

4. How does the angle of an inclined plane affect the coefficient of friction?

The angle of an inclined plane can affect the coefficient of friction in two ways. First, as the angle of the incline increases, the normal force between the object and the surface decreases, resulting in a lower coefficient of friction. Second, the steeper the incline, the greater the component of the force of gravity pulling the object down the incline, increasing the friction force and the coefficient of friction.

5. Can the coefficient of friction be greater than 1?

Yes, the coefficient of friction can be greater than 1. This occurs when the force of friction is greater than the force pushing or pulling the object. This is often seen in situations where there is a lot of resistance, such as trying to push a heavy object across a rough surface. However, a coefficient of friction greater than 1 is not physically possible in ideal situations, as it would require an infinite amount of force to overcome the friction force.

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