- #1
J. Richter
- 9
- 0
Imagine a universe A, containing only two identical heavy planets situated at an almost infinite distance from each other.
Imagine another universe B, containing only two identical lighter planets situated at an almost infinite distance from each other.
In both cases the gravitational potential energy between the planets are said to be almost zero.
How can that be?
I think there must be a bigger overall potential in universe A.
Don’t you?
Two bigger planets “falling together” trough billions of years, must lead to a bigger fireworks, than two lighter planets “falling together” trough billions of years.
How do we describe this actual difference in the overall potential between universe A and B?
Imagine another universe B, containing only two identical lighter planets situated at an almost infinite distance from each other.
In both cases the gravitational potential energy between the planets are said to be almost zero.
How can that be?
I think there must be a bigger overall potential in universe A.
Don’t you?
Two bigger planets “falling together” trough billions of years, must lead to a bigger fireworks, than two lighter planets “falling together” trough billions of years.
How do we describe this actual difference in the overall potential between universe A and B?