- #1
mathmari
Gold Member
MHB
- 5,049
- 7
Hey!
If $E \subset \mathbb{R}$ is Lebesgue measurable and $\phi(t)=m \left ((-\infty, t) \cap E\right )$, then $\phi$ is Lipschitz.
How could we generalize this sentence in $\mathbb{R}^d$?? (Wondering)
If $E \subset \mathbb{R}^d$ is Lebesgue measurable and $\phi(t)=m \left (\dots \cap E\right )$, then $\phi$ is Lipschitz.
What should be instead of $(-\infty, t)$ ?? (Wondering)
Maybe a rectangle in $\mathbb{R}^d$?? Or something else?? (Wondering)
If $E \subset \mathbb{R}$ is Lebesgue measurable and $\phi(t)=m \left ((-\infty, t) \cap E\right )$, then $\phi$ is Lipschitz.
How could we generalize this sentence in $\mathbb{R}^d$?? (Wondering)
If $E \subset \mathbb{R}^d$ is Lebesgue measurable and $\phi(t)=m \left (\dots \cap E\right )$, then $\phi$ is Lipschitz.
What should be instead of $(-\infty, t)$ ?? (Wondering)
Maybe a rectangle in $\mathbb{R}^d$?? Or something else?? (Wondering)