- #1
sameeralord
- 662
- 3
Hello everyone
I'm learning sound at the moment and I would really appreciate if you people can fine tune my knowledge.
My understanding of the sound wave. An object is vibrating
The forward motion of the object: The particles closer are compressed and they push the adjacent particles and they push the other and so on passing the compression and return to their mean positions.
Backward motion of the object : The particles closer are pulled apart causing a rarefaction.The particles that are pulled apart pull the adjacent particles and they pull the other and so on hence passing the rarefaction. Then they return to mean positions again.
Is my understanding right. After the forward vibration do the particles return to their mean position and then pulled back or is the backward motion what that causes them to be pulled back to their original position .I'm confused here
How is speed of sound not related to frequency
If the particles in a solid are close together that means the vibrations would be passed more rapidly. Wouldn't this mean that the time it takes for one wavelength is shorter hence shorter period and higher frequency. I saw in another question they divided the wavelength by the period to get the speed. How can frequency not be related.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance
IMPORTANT EDIT: I just had a think about this again. This is my new reason. tell me if this is correct. So the speed of sound in air is 340 ms-1 and this is a constant. Let's a musical note or an object want to create an frequency 240 Hz. Then the sound wave takes this speed (340 ms-1) into consideration and alters the wavelength so that it matches with the speed of sound in air. So actually what happens is frequency and wavelength inversely change so that all sounds travel at 340 ms-l.Or else it would sound horrible. Am I right?
I'm learning sound at the moment and I would really appreciate if you people can fine tune my knowledge.
My understanding of the sound wave. An object is vibrating
The forward motion of the object: The particles closer are compressed and they push the adjacent particles and they push the other and so on passing the compression and return to their mean positions.
Backward motion of the object : The particles closer are pulled apart causing a rarefaction.The particles that are pulled apart pull the adjacent particles and they pull the other and so on hence passing the rarefaction. Then they return to mean positions again.
Is my understanding right. After the forward vibration do the particles return to their mean position and then pulled back or is the backward motion what that causes them to be pulled back to their original position .I'm confused here
How is speed of sound not related to frequency
If the particles in a solid are close together that means the vibrations would be passed more rapidly. Wouldn't this mean that the time it takes for one wavelength is shorter hence shorter period and higher frequency. I saw in another question they divided the wavelength by the period to get the speed. How can frequency not be related.
Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance
IMPORTANT EDIT: I just had a think about this again. This is my new reason. tell me if this is correct. So the speed of sound in air is 340 ms-1 and this is a constant. Let's a musical note or an object want to create an frequency 240 Hz. Then the sound wave takes this speed (340 ms-1) into consideration and alters the wavelength so that it matches with the speed of sound in air. So actually what happens is frequency and wavelength inversely change so that all sounds travel at 340 ms-l.Or else it would sound horrible. Am I right?
Last edited: