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UrbanXrisis
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Euler-Lagrangian Equations
Let [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] be a Lagrangian of a mechanical system, where [tex]q_i(t) [/tex] and [tex] \dot{q}_i (t) [/tex] are the short hand notations for [tex] q_1(t), q_2(t), . . . q_N(t)[/tex] and [tex] \dot{q}_1(t), \dot{q}_2(t), . . . \dot{q}_N(t)[/tex], respectively.
I need to prove that if [tex] L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt} [/tex], then [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] and [tex]L ' =L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] give the same equations of motion (Euler-Lagrangian equations).
The Euler-Lagrangian equations is [tex] \frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]
I really have no idea where to begin. Any suggestions would be much appreciated.
Let [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] be a Lagrangian of a mechanical system, where [tex]q_i(t) [/tex] and [tex] \dot{q}_i (t) [/tex] are the short hand notations for [tex] q_1(t), q_2(t), . . . q_N(t)[/tex] and [tex] \dot{q}_1(t), \dot{q}_2(t), . . . \dot{q}_N(t)[/tex], respectively.
I need to prove that if [tex] L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt} [/tex], then [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] and [tex]L ' =L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] give the same equations of motion (Euler-Lagrangian equations).
The Euler-Lagrangian equations is [tex] \frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]
I really have no idea where to begin. Any suggestions would be much appreciated.
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