- #1
fredfmah
- 4
- 0
Dear Gurus,
I'm coding a microprocessor controller for a 0.1hp motor.
to assist going up hill on a bike. But the RR equation seems strange
I found the equations relating the bike losses, mechanical, rolling resistance , airdrag... with speed and hence horsepower and calories.
Here are the equations connecting losses, speed and Watts (hp)
The motor has to overcome losses, and as I said I found these
formulas for watts needed to keep bike at the chosen speed. .
RR = M*g*Crr.......(1)
Airdrag = 0.5*Ac *Cd*Da*v2 ...(2)
Totloss =(RR+Airdrag)*102/100...(3) 102/100 term for bike mec losses
P = v *Totloss ........(4)
Where v is in m/s and w in kg ( they use mass for w?)
They gave an example 20mph, rider +bike weight 190lbs, HP needed
expressed in watts 329W. In metric units
...20mph = 8.89m/s and 190lb =86.18kg
Table of coefficient values that were used:-
Air Density coeff: Da =1.226 kg/m3
Air Drag coefficient : Cd = 0.9
Rider surface area:- Ac = 0.7 m3
Rolling Resistance:- Crr = 0.007
My question is :-
Could you explain if equation (1) below is correct?
RR = M*g*Crr......(1)
The author of the internet article directly multiplies
0.007*9.81 * 86.18 *v= 52.55.
But 86.18 is weight, not mass.
On the other hand the magnitude of the result seems believable, about
0.44hp.
Most people in this example would need a motor as even a good cyclist would soon become tired.
I'd also be most grateful if someone could explain if the whole set of the above equations are valid enough for engineering use?
The actual values of course of the loss coefficients will vary depending on terrain, tires, rider frontal area. That is acceptable for practical engineering calculations..
I know that the bicycle mechanical losses are not covered, but they are very small, perhaps 2% of the total losses because modern bikes are extremely efficient, hence the 102/100 term above
My interest in the RR part, is because that RR part of the equation at low speeds predominates. (This is because the air resistance is a v^3 function.)
Air losses becomes predominant at about 12km/hr, always supposing that the RR term is correct.
Bye and thanks
Fred
Madrid
Spain
I'm coding a microprocessor controller for a 0.1hp motor.
to assist going up hill on a bike. But the RR equation seems strange
I found the equations relating the bike losses, mechanical, rolling resistance , airdrag... with speed and hence horsepower and calories.
Here are the equations connecting losses, speed and Watts (hp)
The motor has to overcome losses, and as I said I found these
formulas for watts needed to keep bike at the chosen speed. .
RR = M*g*Crr.......(1)
Airdrag = 0.5*Ac *Cd*Da*v2 ...(2)
Totloss =(RR+Airdrag)*102/100...(3) 102/100 term for bike mec losses
P = v *Totloss ........(4)
Where v is in m/s and w in kg ( they use mass for w?)
They gave an example 20mph, rider +bike weight 190lbs, HP needed
expressed in watts 329W. In metric units
...20mph = 8.89m/s and 190lb =86.18kg
Table of coefficient values that were used:-
Air Density coeff: Da =1.226 kg/m3
Air Drag coefficient : Cd = 0.9
Rider surface area:- Ac = 0.7 m3
Rolling Resistance:- Crr = 0.007
My question is :-
Could you explain if equation (1) below is correct?
RR = M*g*Crr......(1)
The author of the internet article directly multiplies
0.007*9.81 * 86.18 *v= 52.55.
But 86.18 is weight, not mass.
On the other hand the magnitude of the result seems believable, about
0.44hp.
Most people in this example would need a motor as even a good cyclist would soon become tired.
I'd also be most grateful if someone could explain if the whole set of the above equations are valid enough for engineering use?
The actual values of course of the loss coefficients will vary depending on terrain, tires, rider frontal area. That is acceptable for practical engineering calculations..
I know that the bicycle mechanical losses are not covered, but they are very small, perhaps 2% of the total losses because modern bikes are extremely efficient, hence the 102/100 term above
My interest in the RR part, is because that RR part of the equation at low speeds predominates. (This is because the air resistance is a v^3 function.)
Air losses becomes predominant at about 12km/hr, always supposing that the RR term is correct.
Bye and thanks
Fred
Madrid
Spain