How do I show that a function defined by an integral is of class C1?

In summary, F(x)=\int^{2x}_1\frac{e^{xy}\cos y}{y}dy is a function of class C^1 and its derivative F'(x) can be computed using the Leibniz rule. The function F(x) is continuous on the compact subset T=[1,2x] of \mathbb{R} and is uniformly continuous on S=\mathbb{R}^n.
  • #1
richyw
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0

Homework Statement



[tex]F(x)=\int^{2x}_1\frac{e^{xy}\cos y}{y}dy[/tex]

Show that F is of class [itex]C^1[/itex], and compute the derivative F′(x).

Homework Equations



Thm:

Suppose S and T are compact subsets of [itex]\mathbb{R}^n \text{ and } \mathbb{R}^m[/itex], respectively, and S is measurable. if [itex]f(\bf{x,y})[/itex] is continuous on the set [itex]T\times S = \{ (\bf{x,y})\; : \; \bf{x}\in T, \;\bf{y}\in S\}[/itex], then the function F defined by, [tex]F(x)=\int ... \int_S f(x,y)d^n\bf{y}[/tex] is continuous on T.

Thm:

Suppose [itex] S\subset \mathbb{R}^n \text{ and } \bf{f}\; : \; S\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^m[/itex] is continuous at every point of S. If S is compact, then [itex]\bf{f}[/itex] is uniformly continuous on S.

The Attempt at a Solution



I already figured out that

[tex]\int e^{xy}\cos y\;dy=\frac{e^{xy}}{x^2+1}(\sin y+x\cos y)[/tex]

which was listed as a hint. My book explains how to compute the derivative, but not how to show that it is of class [itex]C^1[/itex]. I need some help getting started on this one!
 
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  • #2
When you differentiate a [itex] C^k [/itex] function you get a [itex] C^{k-1} [/itex] function. What happens when you integrate a [itex] C^k [/itex] function?
 
  • #3
uh, I'm going to go with [itex]C^{k+1}[/itex]
 
  • #4
are you sure about that though?
 
  • #5
If [itex] f \in C^k(\mathbb R, \mathbb R) [/itex] then define [itex] g(x) = \int_1^x f(t) gt [/itex]. We would like to show that [itex] g \in C^{k+1} [/itex], and hence that the (k+1) derivatives of g exist and are continuous. Well, [itex] \frac{d^{k+1} g}{dx^{k+1}} = \frac{d^k f}{dx^k} [/itex] and this is continuous by assumption that [itex] f \in C^k [/itex].
 
  • #6
For multivariate calculus, do the same argument with partials. Though here you need not do that since your function is just a map [itex] F: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R [/itex].

Now the solution is not quite straightforward: you are going to need to check that the derivative of your F(x) is continuous. You can do this using the Leibniz rule.
 

Related to How do I show that a function defined by an integral is of class C1?

What is a class C1 function?

A class C1 function is a type of function that is continuous and has a continuous first derivative.

How do I determine if a function is of class C1?

In order to determine if a function is of class C1, you need to check if it is continuous and if its first derivative exists and is continuous.

What is the significance of a function being of class C1?

A function being of class C1 means that it is differentiable, which is an important concept in calculus and mathematical analysis. It also means that the function is smooth and has no sharp corners or breaks.

What is the role of integrals in determining if a function is of class C1?

Integrals play a crucial role in determining if a function is of class C1 because they allow us to calculate the slope or rate of change of a function at a given point. This slope or rate of change is the first derivative, which is necessary for a function to be of class C1.

Can a function be of class C1 but not of class C2?

Yes, a function can be of class C1 but not of class C2. This means that it is differentiable and has a continuous first derivative, but its second derivative may not exist or be continuous. In other words, the function may have sharp corners or breaks in its curvature.

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