How do spherical coordinates work for finding volume in a given region?

In post #1 you have shown that ##\tan^2\phi = 3##, so ##\tan \phi = \pm\sqrt 3##. If you plug that into a calculator you get ##\phi = \pm \frac \pi 3##. Those are the principle values of the arctangent. But in spherical coordiantes you always want solutions between ##0## and ##\pi##. So if you want the bottom portion of the cone, you need the second quadrant value of ##\phi## whose tangent is ##-\sqrt 3##. That is ##\frac{2\pi} 3##. Of course, you don't need that for your problem because it is
  • #1
mrcleanhands

Homework Statement


Find [itex] VR_{z}^{2} = \int \!\!\! \int \!\!\! \int_{E} (x^{2} + y^{2})dV[/itex] given a constant density lying above upper half of [itex]x^{2}+y^{2} = 3z^{2}[/itex] and below [itex]x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2} = 4z[/itex].

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


Why does it say upper half of [itex]x^{2}+y^{2} = 3z^{2}[/itex]? It's not like there are two possible halves.

Here's what I've done so far but I'm a little unsure about some theory.
For [itex]x^{2}+y^{2} = 3z^{2}[/itex]
[itex] \tan^{2}\phi = 3[/itex] which means [itex]\phi=\pm\frac{\pi}{3}[/itex]

I've seen most questions don't actually have a - value for [itex]\phi[/itex] because it only works in a range of [itex] 0 [/itex] and [itex]\pi[/itex] right? The movement itself is taken care of by [itex]\theta[/itex]? So I can just get rid off that negative [itex] \frac{\pi}{3}[/itex]?


For [itex]x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2} = 4z[/itex]:
[itex]\rho=4cos\phi[/itex] and then usually questions will say [itex]0\leq\rho\leq4\cos\phi[/itex] but I don't really know how we get it ranges from 0... ?

Assuming I did everything right I'll then get:
[itex]E=\{(r,\theta,\phi):0\leq\theta\leq2\pi,\, 0\leq\phi\leq\frac{\pi}{3},\, 0\leq \rho \leq4 \cos\phi\}[/itex]

Which I then plug into an integral like this:

[itex] \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \int_{0}^{4\cos\phi} (x^{2} + y^{2}) \,\rho^{2}\sin\phi d\rho d\phi d\theta[/itex]
 
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  • #2
mrcleanhands said:

Homework Statement


Find [itex] VR_{z}^{2} = \int \!\!\! \int \!\!\! \int_{E} (x^{2} + y^{2})dV[/itex] given a constant density lying above upper half of [itex]x^{2}+y^{2} = 3z^{2}[/itex] and below [itex]x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2} = 4z[/itex].


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


Why does it say upper half of [itex]x^{2}+y^{2} = 3z^{2}[/itex]? It's not like there are two possible halves.
On the contrary, there are "two possible halves", [itex]z= \sqrt{(x^2+ y^2)/3}[/itex] and [itex]z= -\sqrt{(x^2+ y^2)/3}[/itex]. This is a cone with two nappes.

Here's what I've done so far but I'm a little unsure about some theory.
For [itex]x^{2}+y^{2} = 3z^{2}[/itex]
[itex] \tan^{2}\phi = 3[/itex] which means [itex]\phi=\pm\frac{\pi}{3}[/itex]

I've seen most questions don't actually have a - value for [itex]\phi[/itex] because it only works in a range of [itex] 0 [/itex] and [itex]\pi[/itex] right? The movement itself is taken care of by [itex]\theta[/itex]? So I can just get rid off that negative [itex] \frac{\pi}{3}[/itex]?
What negative are you talking about? Yes, in spherical coordinates, [itex]\phi[/itex] is always gbetween 0 and [itex]\pi[/itex]. I don't see a problem with that.

For [itex]x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2} = 4z[/itex]:
[itex]\rho=4cos\phi[/itex] and then usually questions will say [itex]0\leq\rho\leq4\cos\phi[/itex] but I don't really know how we get it ranges from 0... ?
Where do the two surfaces, [itex]x^2+ y^2= 3z^2[/itex] (a cone) and [itex]x^2+ y^2+ z^2= 4z[/itex] (a sphere with center at (0, 0, 2)) intersect? Subtracting the first from the second we have [itex]z^2= 4z- 3z^2[/itex] which reduces to [itex]z^2- z= z(z- 1)= 0[/tex].
z= 1 gives. as you say, [itex]tan(\phi)= 3[/itex].

[/quote]Assuming I did everything right I'll then get:
[itex]E=\{(r,\theta,\phi):0\leq\theta\leq2\pi,\, 0\leq\phi\leq\frac{\pi}{3},\, 0\leq \rho \leq4 \cos\phi\}[/itex]

Which I then plug into an integral like this:

[itex] \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \int_{0}^{4\cos\phi} (x^{2} + y^{2}) \,\rho^{2}\sin\phi d\rho d\phi d\theta[/itex][/QUOTE]
Why do you still have [itex]x^2+ y^2[/itex] after you have converted to spherical coordinates?
 
  • #3
HallsofIvy said:
On the contrary, there are "two possible halves", [itex]z= \sqrt{(x^2+ y^2)/3}[/itex] and [itex]z= -\sqrt{(x^2+ y^2)/3}[/itex]. This is a cone with two nappes.

Cool, I see it now.

HallsofIvy said:
What negative are you talking about?

This.

[itex]x^{2}+y^{2}=3z^{2}[/itex]
[itex]\rho^{2}\sin^{2}(\phi)\cos^{2}(\theta)+\rho^{2}\sin^{2}(\phi)\sin^{2}(\theta)=3\rho\cos^{2}(\phi)[/itex]
[itex]\sin^{2}(\phi)=3\cos^{2}(\phi)[/itex]
[itex]\tan^{2}\phi=3[/itex]
[itex]\tan\phi=\pm\sqrt{3}[/itex]
[itex]\phi=\pm\frac{\pi}{3}[/itex]

HallsofIvy said:
Where do the two surfaces, [itex]x^2+ y^2= 3z^2[/itex] (a cone) and [itex]x^2+ y^2+ z^2= 4z[/itex] (a sphere with center at (0, 0, 2)) intersect? Subtracting the first from the second we have [itex]z^2= 4z- 3z^2[/itex] which reduces to [itex]z^2- z= z(z- 1)= 0[/itex].
z= 1 gives. as you say, [itex]tan(\phi)= 3[/itex].
Ok. I see you've found the intersection using the rectangular coordinates.
Can't I do so in spherical co-ordinates?
Why am I only getting one of the intersections when I do it this way (spherical coordinates)? i.e. [itex]\phi=\pm\frac{\pi}{3}[/itex] and not the 0.
Also why is z=1 the equivalent of [itex]\tan\phi = \pm\sqrt{3}[/itex] ?
If I convert z=1 to spherical co-ordinates I get [itex]\rho\sin\phi=1[/itex] ... not sure how to convert the 1 to the spherical equivalent.
How did you get the centre of the sphere as (0,0,2)? The z on the other side of the equality has thrown me off a little.
HallsofIvy said:
[itex] \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \int_{0}^{4\cos\phi} (x^{2} + y^{2}) \,\rho^{2}\sin\phi d\rho d\phi d\theta[/itex]
Why do you still have [itex]x^2+ y^2[/itex] after you have converted to spherical coordinates?[/QUOTE]
Should be...

[itex] \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \int_{0}^{4\cos\phi} (\rho^{2}\sin^{2}(\phi)) \,\rho^{2}\sin\phi d\rho d\phi d\theta[/itex]
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #4
bump^
 
  • #5
mrcleanhands said:
Should be...

[itex] \int_{0}^{2\pi} \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{3}} \int_{0}^{4\cos\phi} (\rho^{2}\sin^{2}(\phi)) \,\rho^{2}\sin\phi d\rho d\phi d\theta[/itex]

mrcleanhands said:
bump^

Why the bump? What's left to do?
 
  • #6
Yeah, I don't really get why z=1 gives [itex]\tan\phi=\pm\sqrt{3}[/itex] I can get this if I convert to spherical co-ordinates straight away but not by solving the intersection of the rectangular coordinates.

Also while there are no negative in spherical co-ordinate radians I get [itex]\phi=\pm\frac{pi}{3}[/itex]
 
  • #7
mrcleanhands said:
Yeah, I don't really get why z=1 gives [itex]\tan\phi=\pm\sqrt{3}[/itex] I can get this if I convert to spherical co-ordinates straight away but not by solving the intersection of the rectangular coordinates.

Also while there are no negative in spherical co-ordinate radians I get [itex]\phi=\pm\frac{pi}{3}[/itex]

In post #1 you have shown that ##\tan^2\phi = 3##, so ##\tan \phi = \pm\sqrt 3##. If you plug that into a calculator you get ##\phi = \pm \frac \pi 3##. Those are the principle values of the arctangent. But in spherical coordiantes you always want solutions between ##0## and ##\pi##. So if you want the bottom portion of the cone, you need the second quadrant value of ##\phi## whose tangent is ##-\sqrt 3##. That is ##\frac{2\pi} 3##. Of course, you don't need that for your problem because it is only concerned with the upper half of the cone.
 

Related to How do spherical coordinates work for finding volume in a given region?

What are spherical coordinates?

Spherical coordinates are a system of coordinates used to locate points on a sphere or a three-dimensional space. They consist of a radial distance from the origin, an angle from the z-axis, and an angle from the x-axis.

How are spherical coordinates different from Cartesian coordinates?

Spherical coordinates use a distance from the origin and two angles to locate a point, while Cartesian coordinates use three perpendicular axes (x, y, and z) to locate a point.

What are the advantages of using spherical coordinates?

Spherical coordinates are useful for describing points on a sphere or in a three-dimensional space, such as in physics, astronomy, and engineering. They also make it easier to calculate distance, angles, and volume in certain situations.

How do you convert spherical coordinates to Cartesian coordinates?

To convert spherical coordinates (r, θ, φ) to Cartesian coordinates (x, y, z), use the following equations:x = r * sin(θ) * cos(φ)y = r * sin(θ) * sin(φ)z = r * cos(θ)where r is the radial distance, θ is the angle from the z-axis, and φ is the angle from the x-axis.

Can spherical coordinates be used to describe points in higher dimensions?

Yes, spherical coordinates can be extended to higher dimensions, such as four-dimensional space, by adding additional angles. However, they become more complex and are not commonly used in higher dimensions.

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