- #1
djanni_unchained
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When scientists measured the position of Mercury in the 18th century, they interpreted the results assuming a Euclidean background, because they did not know general relativity. So they measured r and φ in fuction of time attributing to these coordinates an Euclidean meaning, that is, assuming that the relations of Euclidean geometry hold for these coordinates.
In Schwarzschild solution (ds^2=(1−2m/r)dt^2−1/(1−2m/r)dr^2−r^2dΩ^2) r and φ dosn't have the same meaning of the Euclideian r and φ, in mind of scientists of the 18th century; so my doubt is:
if general reltivity predicts a precession of Mercury perielium with Δφ=43'', why we should compere this quantity whit the Δφ measured in 18th century, surely measured with reasoning that assumes a Euclidean space?
In Schwarzschild solution (ds^2=(1−2m/r)dt^2−1/(1−2m/r)dr^2−r^2dΩ^2) r and φ dosn't have the same meaning of the Euclideian r and φ, in mind of scientists of the 18th century; so my doubt is:
if general reltivity predicts a precession of Mercury perielium with Δφ=43'', why we should compere this quantity whit the Δφ measured in 18th century, surely measured with reasoning that assumes a Euclidean space?