How Do You Prove (ab)^-1 Equals a^-1b^-1?

In summary, the statement (ab)-1 = a-1b-1 for all a,b =! 0 is proven using the principles of multiplicative inverse property, commutivity, associativity, and transitivity. Your proof is valid while your friend's relies on an unproven assumption.
  • #1
jgens
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Homework Statement



Prove (ab)-1 = a-1b-1 for all a,b =! 0.

Homework Equations



Multiplicative inverse property: (a)(a-1) = 1
Commutivity: ab = ba
Associativity: (ab)c = a(bc)
Transitivity: If a = b and b = c then a = c

The Attempt at a Solution



Early today, my friend and I had a discussion regarding this statement and its proof using the principles stated above. The proof I provided is as follows:

(ab)(ab)-1 = 1 and 1 = (a)(a-1)(b)(b-1); therefore it follows by transitivity that (ab)(ab)-1 = (a)(a-1)(b)(b-1). By commutivity and associativity it follows that (ab)(ab)-1 = (ab)(a-1)(b-1), ultimately yielding (ab)-1 = (a-1)(b-1).

The proof my friend posted is as follows:

(ab)-1 = 1/(ab) = (1/a)(1/b) = (a-1)(b-1)

I argued that my friend's proof was not valid as it relies on the unproven (yet true) assumption that (ab)-1 = 1/(ab) which he would need to demonstrate was true before using it in a proof. I think my friend is right on this one and my criticisms aren't truly valid; however, I thought I would check here with people who are familiar with mathematics to ensure that any of the proofs, criticisms, etc. are valid or invalid.

Thanks!
 
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  • #2
Your proof is correct, and your friend's isn't. These proofs should only refer to addition, multiplication, and the axioms. Division is defined later in terms of multiplication. So things like [itex]1/(ab)[/itex] shouldn't even be showing up here.
 
  • #3




Both proofs are valid and correct. Your friend's proof is simply a more direct and concise way of proving the statement. It is true that the assumption that (ab)-1 = 1/(ab) is not explicitly proven, but it is a well-known property of multiplicative inverses that can be easily verified using the multiplicative inverse property. In fact, your proof also relies on this property, as you use the fact that (ab)-1 = (a)(b)-1 in your transitivity step. Therefore, both proofs are valid and your criticisms are not entirely valid. It is always important to check and verify assumptions used in proofs, but in this case, the assumption is a well-known property that can be safely used.
 

FAQ: How Do You Prove (ab)^-1 Equals a^-1b^-1?

What is a multiplicative inverse?

A multiplicative inverse, also known as a reciprocal, is a number that, when multiplied by another number, gives a result of 1. In other words, a multiplicative inverse "undoes" the effect of multiplication.

How do you find the multiplicative inverse of a number?

To find the multiplicative inverse of a number, you can use the formula 1/x, where x is the given number. For example, the multiplicative inverse of 4 is 1/4, which equals 0.25.

Why is proving the existence of a multiplicative inverse important?

Proving the existence of a multiplicative inverse is important because it ensures that the operations of multiplication and division are well-defined in a given number system. It also allows us to solve equations involving multiplication and division.

What is the process for proving the existence of a multiplicative inverse?

The process for proving the existence of a multiplicative inverse involves showing that the product of a number and its inverse is equal to 1. This can be done using algebraic manipulation and logical reasoning.

Can every number have a multiplicative inverse?

No, not every number has a multiplicative inverse. Only non-zero numbers have multiplicative inverses. This is because any number multiplied by 0 will always equal 0, and there is no number that can be multiplied by 0 to equal 1.

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