- #1
Dethrone
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I just want to make sure I'm understand this. If I want to show to spans are equal, say $\text{span}(X)=\text{span}(Y)$, then I think I read that if we can represent all the elements of $X$ as a linear combination of the elements of $Y$, then $\text{span}(X) \subseteq \text{span}(Y)$ and if we can show all the elements of $Y$ can be represented as a linear combination of the elements of $X$, then $\text{span}(Y) \subseteq \text{span}(X)$. Therefore, the spans are equal.
Now, this is my understanding on why that is true, can you let me know if it is right? If we can show that all the elements of $X$ can be represented as a linear combination of the elements of $Y$, that would mean that $X_{i}\in \text{span}(Y)$, where $X_i$ is an element of $X$. Furthermore, all linear combinations of $X_i$ are also in $\text{span}(Y)$, since the elements themselves are linear combinations of the elements in $Y$. Thus, $\text{span}(X) \subseteq \text{span}(Y)$. The same reasoning holds for the other way around...
Is this correct, and is there any better way to think about this? It hurts my brain :(
Now, this is my understanding on why that is true, can you let me know if it is right? If we can show that all the elements of $X$ can be represented as a linear combination of the elements of $Y$, that would mean that $X_{i}\in \text{span}(Y)$, where $X_i$ is an element of $X$. Furthermore, all linear combinations of $X_i$ are also in $\text{span}(Y)$, since the elements themselves are linear combinations of the elements in $Y$. Thus, $\text{span}(X) \subseteq \text{span}(Y)$. The same reasoning holds for the other way around...
Is this correct, and is there any better way to think about this? It hurts my brain :(