- #1
ChrisVer
Gold Member
- 3,378
- 464
Why is the chiral symmetry breakdown determined for the vector/axial current as:
[itex] V = \frac{m_{π^{+}}-m_{π^{0}}}{m_{π^{0}}+m_{π^{+}}}\approx 0.01 [/itex]
[itex] A= \frac{m_{π^{+}}-m_{f^{0}}}{m_{f^{0}}+m_{π^{+}}}\approx 1[/itex]
?
why do we choose the difference between the pion+ (~140MeV) and pion0 (~135MeV) for the vector current or the difference between the pion(~140MeV) and the f0 meson (~900MeV) for the axial? Also why take that formulas for those asymmetries?
[itex] V = \frac{m_{π^{+}}-m_{π^{0}}}{m_{π^{0}}+m_{π^{+}}}\approx 0.01 [/itex]
[itex] A= \frac{m_{π^{+}}-m_{f^{0}}}{m_{f^{0}}+m_{π^{+}}}\approx 1[/itex]
?
why do we choose the difference between the pion+ (~140MeV) and pion0 (~135MeV) for the vector current or the difference between the pion(~140MeV) and the f0 meson (~900MeV) for the axial? Also why take that formulas for those asymmetries?