- #1
member 428835
hey pf!
so my question is how cramer's rule makes sense from a geometric perspective. I'm reading the following article:
http://www.maa.org/sites/default/files/268994245608.pdf
and i am good with the logic of the entire article except one point: when they say $$x=\frac{ON}{OQ}$$ can someone please take a quick second and explain to me why this is the case? i thought from the coordinate transformation we would simply have $$x=ON$$
let me know what you think! i'd really appreciate it!
also, i do hate directing you all to another link but it is too much to put on this post, although it is pretty simple stuff.
so my question is how cramer's rule makes sense from a geometric perspective. I'm reading the following article:
http://www.maa.org/sites/default/files/268994245608.pdf
and i am good with the logic of the entire article except one point: when they say $$x=\frac{ON}{OQ}$$ can someone please take a quick second and explain to me why this is the case? i thought from the coordinate transformation we would simply have $$x=ON$$
let me know what you think! i'd really appreciate it!
also, i do hate directing you all to another link but it is too much to put on this post, although it is pretty simple stuff.