- #1
Aubin
- 2
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Hello,
I am currently trying to really come to grips with electromagnetic induction and Faraday's law.
The text I'm using is Young and Freedman's University Physics, 12th edition.
How can the emf for a conducting loop moving in a magnetic field be given by the closed loop integral of (v cross B) dot dl where dl is an infinitesimal loop element, when (the way I understand it) that essentially represents work per unit charge done by the MAGNETIC force? And of course we know that the magnetic force does zero work. This is where I'm confused. Also, when we do work to keep such a loop moving, we move it against a magnetic force, how come (as my book says) the magnetic force does no (negative) work as we move this wire?
Thanks
Aubin
I am currently trying to really come to grips with electromagnetic induction and Faraday's law.
The text I'm using is Young and Freedman's University Physics, 12th edition.
How can the emf for a conducting loop moving in a magnetic field be given by the closed loop integral of (v cross B) dot dl where dl is an infinitesimal loop element, when (the way I understand it) that essentially represents work per unit charge done by the MAGNETIC force? And of course we know that the magnetic force does zero work. This is where I'm confused. Also, when we do work to keep such a loop moving, we move it against a magnetic force, how come (as my book says) the magnetic force does no (negative) work as we move this wire?
Thanks
Aubin