- #1
sumeetkd
- 9
- 0
This is a doubt straight from Peskin, eq 2.43
∅(x,t) = eiHt∅(x)e-iHt.
This had been derived in Quantum Mechanics.
How does this hold in the QFT framework?
We don't have the simple Eψ=Hψ structure so this shouldn't directly hold.
I'm sorry if this is too trivial
∅(x,t) = eiHt∅(x)e-iHt.
This had been derived in Quantum Mechanics.
How does this hold in the QFT framework?
We don't have the simple Eψ=Hψ structure so this shouldn't directly hold.
I'm sorry if this is too trivial