How does friction cancel out in this problem?

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In summary: The attempt at a solution is to use the equations for a frictionless plane, which are not valid when there is actual friction. The equations for a frictionless plane would be ma = mgsinγ - μmgcosγ, gsinγ-μg = 0, and a = (2/3)(gsinγ-μg).
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Vitani11
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Homework Statement


Consider a uniform solid disk of mass m and radius R, rolling without slipping down an inclined plane with an angle γ to the horizontal. The instantaneous point of contact between the disk and the incline is called P.

Homework Equations


ma = mgsinγ - μmgcosγ
Γ = Rmgsinγ-Rμmg
Moment of inertia about P = (3/2)MR2 from parallel axis theorem
Γ is torque

The Attempt at a Solution


Are these the correct equations to start out from? Probably not. My professor said you are to assume that there is friction and it will end up cancelling. I can do the problem without friction but not including it.
Γ = Rmgsinγ-Rμmg = (3/2)MR2α
gsinγ-μg = (3/2)a
a = (2/3)(gsinγ-μg)
 
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  • #2
Can you be a bit more explicit ? What does ##\Gamma = R mg\sin\gamma - R\mu mg## stand for ?
 
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  • #3
It looks like you are defining the friction force to be equal to μN, but that only applies when the object is ready to slip. The problem only says that it is rolling without slipping. It doesn't give you any sense of how close it is to slipping. Also, I think it would be helpful if you could post your free body diagram showing how you defined your axes.
 
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  • #4
The problem statement implies that the instantaneous torque is to be calculated about the instantaneous point P, in which case friction keeps the disk from sliding so that it does instantaneously rotate about point P, but friction is not related to any torque about point P, since that is the pivot point.

I don't understand why your professor stated that friction will end up cancelling. Although the torque about point P related to friction is zero, the point of application of linear forces doesn't matter, and the friction force opposes the component of gravity in the direction of the inclined plane, reducing the linear rate of acceleration of the disk (versus a frictionless plane).
 
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  • #5
Got it - thanks
 

Related to How does friction cancel out in this problem?

1. How does friction cancel out in this problem?

Friction cancels out in this problem because it is a force that acts in the opposite direction of motion. When an object is moving, friction acts in the opposite direction to slow it down, but when two objects are in contact and not moving, the friction forces cancel out.

2. Why is friction considered a "negative" force?

Friction is considered a "negative" force because it always acts in the opposite direction of motion, thus slowing down or opposing the movement of an object. It can also be seen as a force that takes away energy from a system.

3. How do we calculate the frictional force in a system?

We can calculate the frictional force in a system by multiplying the coefficient of friction between the two surfaces in contact by the normal force acting between them. The normal force is the force perpendicular to the surface of contact.

4. Can friction ever be completely eliminated in a system?

No, friction cannot be completely eliminated in a system. Even in systems with minimal friction, there is still some amount of friction present. In order to completely eliminate friction, all contact between two surfaces must be removed.

5. How does the coefficient of friction affect the cancellation of friction in a system?

The coefficient of friction affects the cancellation of friction in a system by determining the amount of friction present. A higher coefficient of friction means a stronger frictional force acting between two surfaces, making it more difficult for friction to cancel out. Conversely, a lower coefficient of friction results in a weaker frictional force and easier cancellation of friction.

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