- #1
Karlisbad
- 131
- 0
MNy questions about the QG are vast..i have some math knowledge about GR and only a bit about Regge calculus and Canonical Quantization...
1) if we have the Hamiltonian constraint [tex] \bold H =0 [/tex] then you must have energies (eigenvalues) are all zero¡¡¡ then how does LQG overcome this apparent "paradox"
2) DOes space-time quantization arises from the Boundary conditions of the Wave function of the universe? (as it happened with the quantization of momentum [tex] p=n\hbar/L [/tex] in usual QM for a box of width L
3) HOw the Hell do you solve [tex] \bold H \Phi =0 [/tex]?? i suppose that some functional derivatives will appear so it makes it a harder task to recover or obtain the Wave function of Universe...
4) GR with Torsion is hard for me to understan (Einstein-Cartan theory) so could we suppose that all spins are "polarized" in the same directions as an approximation to avoid spin-effects?? ( i don't know what has spin to do with GR..could someone explain)
5) By the way if we make a Wick rotation so the propagator becomes just "some kind of partition function" does the approach:
[tex] \sum_{n}e^{-E(n)/\hbar}\sim\int_{V}D[\Phi]e^{iS_{E-H}/\hbar} [/tex]
makes sense?..(we consider if the partition function is still the "trace" of the operator [tex] exp{-H/\hbar} [/tex] where H would be the Hamiltonian constraint.
1) if we have the Hamiltonian constraint [tex] \bold H =0 [/tex] then you must have energies (eigenvalues) are all zero¡¡¡ then how does LQG overcome this apparent "paradox"
2) DOes space-time quantization arises from the Boundary conditions of the Wave function of the universe? (as it happened with the quantization of momentum [tex] p=n\hbar/L [/tex] in usual QM for a box of width L
3) HOw the Hell do you solve [tex] \bold H \Phi =0 [/tex]?? i suppose that some functional derivatives will appear so it makes it a harder task to recover or obtain the Wave function of Universe...
4) GR with Torsion is hard for me to understan (Einstein-Cartan theory) so could we suppose that all spins are "polarized" in the same directions as an approximation to avoid spin-effects?? ( i don't know what has spin to do with GR..could someone explain)
5) By the way if we make a Wick rotation so the propagator becomes just "some kind of partition function" does the approach:
[tex] \sum_{n}e^{-E(n)/\hbar}\sim\int_{V}D[\Phi]e^{iS_{E-H}/\hbar} [/tex]
makes sense?..(we consider if the partition function is still the "trace" of the operator [tex] exp{-H/\hbar} [/tex] where H would be the Hamiltonian constraint.